Medical Surgical Nursing Practice Question Answers

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Medical-Surgical Nursing Practice Test Questions

1. A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol (Inderal). Which assessment data would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol?
(a) The development of complaints of insomnia
(b) The development of audible expiratory wheezes
(c) A baseline blood pressure of 150 / 80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138 / 72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication
(d) A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats / min followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats / min after two doses of the medication

2. Intravenous heparin therapy is ordered for a client. While implementing this order, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available on the nursing unit?
(a) Protamine sulfate
(b) Potassium chloride
(c) Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)
(d) Vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON)

3. A client is at risk for pulmonary embolism and is on anticoagulant therapy with warfarin sodium (Coumadin). The client’s prothrombin time is 20 seconds, with a control of 11 seconds. How would the nurse interpret these results?
(a) Client needs to have test repeated
(b) Client results are within the therapeutic range
(c) Client results are higher than the therapeutic range
(d) Client results are lower than the needed therapeutic level

4. A client is to receive antivenin following a snake bite. Before administering the antivenin, the nurse should give priority to:
(a) Administering a local anesthetic
(b) Checking for an allergic response
(c) Administering an anxiolytic
(d) Withholding fluids for 6–8 hours

5. An unresponsive client is admitted to the emergency room with a history of diabetes mellitus. The client’s skin is cold and clammy, and her blood pressure reading is 82/56. The first step in emergency treatment of the client’s symptoms would be:
(a) Checking the client’s blood sugar
(b) Administering intravenous dextrose
(c) Intubation and ventilator support
(d) Administering regular insulin

6. A client has been diagnosed with lung cancer and requires a wedge resection. How much of the lung is removed?
(a) One entire lung
(b) A lobe of the lung
(c) A small localized area near the surface of the lung
(d) A segment of the lung including bronchioles and alveoli

7. A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The client asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse bases the response on which of the following descriptions of this disorder?
(a) Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes
(b) Altered red blood cell production
(c) Altered production of lymph nodes
(d) Malignant proliferation of plasma cells and tumors within the bone

8. Parents of pediatric clients who undergo irradiation involving the central nervous system should be warned about postirradiation somnolence. When does this neurologic syndrome usually occur?
(a) Immediately
(b) Between 1 to 2 weeks
(c) Between 3 to 4 weeks
(d) Between 5 to 8 weeks

9. Which of the following immunizations should not be given to a 4-month-old sibling of a client with leukemia?
(a) DPT
(b) Haemophilus influenza hib
(c) Hepatitis B
(d) OPV

10. The nurse is caring for a client following a modified radical mastectomy. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication related to this surgery?
(a) Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
(b) Arm edema on the operative side
(c) Pain at the incisional site
(d) Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site

11. Which of the following statements is correct about the rate of cell growth in relation to chemotherapy?
(a) Faster growing cells are less susceptible to chemotherapy
(b) Non-dividing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy
(c) Faster growing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy
(d) Slower growing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy

12. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client receiving chemotherapy. The platelet count is 10,000 cells/mm. Based on this laboratory value, the priority nursing assessment is which of the following?
(a) Assessment of consciousness
(b) Assessment of temperature
(c) Assessment of bowel sounds
(d) Assessment of skin turgor

13. Nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of radiation and chemotherapy. When should a nurse administer antiemetics?
(a) Immediately after nausea begins
(b) 30 mins before initiation of therapy
(c) During administration of chemotherapy
(d) 30 mins After administration of chemotherapy

14. Giving instructions for breast self-examination is particularly important for clients with which of the following medical problems?
(a) Ovarian cancer
(b) Cervical dysplacia
(c) Dermoid cyst
(d) Endometrial polyps

15. Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. The nurse teaches the patient that the purpose of therapy with this agent is to__
(a) Protect normal kidney cells from the damaging effects of chemotherapy
(b) Enhance the patient’s immunologic response to tumor cells
(c) Stimulate malignant cells in the resting phase to enter mitosis.
(d) Prevent the bone marrow depression caused by chemotherapy.

16. Intermittent positive pressure ventilation can be best delivered by ________
(a) Venturi Mask
(b) Partial rebreather Mask
(c) Ambu’s Bag
(d) Simple Mask

17. The commonest initial set up of Tidal volume in mechanical ventilator of patient weighing 50 kg is
(a) 250-400 ml
(b) 600-750 ml
(c) 750-1000 ml
(d) 50 -150 ml

18. The FiO2 Value of the client who breath in room air after extubation is ____
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.5

19. The I:E ratio set for a client who suffer from COPD on mechanical ventilation is_______
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:2
(c) 1:4
(d) 1:1

20. The High PEEP and High Tidal volume setting while client on mechanical ventilation will lead to
(a) Atlectasis
(b) Hypercapnia
(c) Parodoxal breathing
(d) Barotaruma