Haryana Kshetriya Gramin Bank Question Papers - Reasoning


Q1. In a certain code ‘PLANT’ is written as ‘$@2*©’ and ‘YIELD’ is written as ‘β64@%’. How is ‘DELAY’ written in that code ?
(A) β4*2%
(B) β4@2%
(C) %42@β
(D) %4@2β
(E) None of these

Q2. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ARILT using each letter only once in that word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

Q3. D said, “A’s father is the only brother of my sister’s son.” How is A’s father related to D ?
(A) Cousin
(B) Nephew
(C) Aunt
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these


Directions—(Q. 4–6) The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below—
394 632 783 576 895

Q4. If the positions of the first and the second digit within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 632
(B) 783
(C) 576
(D) 895
(E) 394

Q5. If the first and second digits of each of the numbers are added the resulting sum of which of the following numbers will not be exactly divisible by 3 ?
(A) 895
(B) 394
(C) 576
(D) 632
(E) 783

Q6. If 2 is added to the last digit of each number and then the positions of the first and the third digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number ?
(A) 576
(B) 895
(C) 783
(D) 394
(E) 632

Q7. If ‘A’ is coded as 1, ‘B’ as 3, ‘C’ as 5 and so on, which of the following is the numerical value of the word ‘FAZED’ ?
(A) 81
(B) 79
(C) 77
(D) 80
(E) None of these

Q8. Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as FAN : HEAT ?
(A) Water : Drink
(B) Light : Night
(C) Teach : Student
(D) Air : Breathe
(E) Food : Hunger

Q9. Q types faster than R but not as fast as V.T types faster than R S types faster than V. Who amongst the five of them types the fastest ?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) S
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these

Q10. If ‘B ×C’ means ‘B, is the daughter of C’, ‘B + C’ means ‘B is the husband of C’ and ‘B – C’ means ‘B is the sister of C’, then what does ‘M + N – P ×Q’ mean ?
(A) M is the brother-in-law of Q
(B) M is the uncle of Q
(C) M is the son-in-law of Q
(D) M is the mother-in-law of Q
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11–17) Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it—
A group of seven friends, A, B, C, D, E, F and G work as Economist, Agriculture Officer, IT Officer, Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex Officer and Research Analyst, for Banks L, M, N; P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the same order. C works for Bank N and is neither a Research Analyst nor a Clerk. E is an IT Officer and works for Bank R. A works as Forex Officer and does not work for Bank L or Q. The one who is an Agriculture Officer works for Bank M. The one who works for Bank L works as a Terminal Operator. F works for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research Analyst. D is not an Agriculture Officer.

Q11. Who amongst the following works as an Agriculture Officer ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these

Q12. What is the profession of C ?
(A) Terminal operator
(B) Agriculture Officer
(C) Economist
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

Q13. For which Bank does B work ?
(A) M
(B) S
(C) L
(D) Either M or S
(E) None of these

Q14. What is the profession of the person who works for Bank S ?
(A) Clerk
(B) Agriculture Officer
(C) Terminal Operator
(D) Forex Officer
(E) None of these

Q15. For which Bank does D work ?
(A) Q
(B) L
(C) N
(D) S
(E) None of these

Q16. Who amongst the following works as a Clerk ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these

Q17. Which of the following combinations of person, profession and bank is correct ?
(A) A-Forex Officer-M
(B) D-Clerk-L
(C) F-Agriculture Officer-Q
(D) B-Agriculture Officer-S
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 18–23) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q18. Statements :
Some stones are rocks.
All rocks are boulders.
Some boulders are mountains.
All hills are mountains.
Conclusions :
I. Some stones are mountains.
II. Some hills are boulders.
III. Some boulders are stones.
IV. All mountains are hills.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these

Q19. Statements :
All arrows are bows.
All bows are swords.
Some swords are daggers.
All daggers are knives.
Conclusions :
I. All knives are bows.
II. Some swords are knives.
III. All bows are arrows.
IV. All arrows are swords.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only III and IV follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) None of these

Q20. Statements :
Some pianos are violins.
Some violins are drums.
All drums are guitars.
No guitar is a flute.
Conclusions :
I. Some guitar are pianos.
II. Some drums are flutes.
III. Some pianos are drums.
IV. No flute is a drum.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only either II or IV follows
(D) Only IV follows
(E) None of these

Q21. Statements :
Some airplane are helicopters.
All helicopters are gliders.
All gliders are kites.
All kites are balloons.
Conclusions :
I. Some helicopters are balloons.
II. All kites are airplanes.
III. All balloons are gliders.
IV. All helicopters are kites.
(A) Only IV follows
(B) Only either II or III follow
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these

Q22. Statements :
All kings are warriors.
All soldiers are warriors.
All sentries are warriors.
Some sentries are soldiers.
Conclusions :
I. Some sentries are kings.
II. All warriors are soldiers.
III. Some warriors are sentries.
IV. Some soldiers are kings.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these

Q23. Statements :
All plastics are glasses.
Some glasses are wood.
Some woods are metals.
All metals are cloths.
Conclusions :
I. Some cloths are wood.
II. Some woods are both cloths and glasses.
III. Some glasses are plastics.
IV. Some cloths are metals.
(A) None follows
(B) All follow
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only I and II follow
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 24–25) Read the information given below carefully and then answer the questions that follow. In a certain code language :
I. ‘she likes apples’ is written as ‘pic sip dip’.
II. ‘parrot likes apples lots’ is written as ‘dip pic tif nit’.
III. ‘she likes parrots’ is written as ‘tif sip dip’.

Q24. How is ‘parrot’ written in that code language ?
(A) pic
(B) dip
(C) tif
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

Q25. Which of the following statements is not necessary in order to answer the above question ?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) All are required
(E) Either II or III

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
S M P 6 3 * $ A 4 L N @ Z 5 # V U 7 E 8 B % T Y X G 2 I & 9 W

Q26. Which of the following is the third to the left of the fifteenth from the left end ?
(A) @
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) U
(E) None of these

Q27. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by an even number and preceded by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

Q28. What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
P M 3 A $ L Z @ # ?
(A) U V E
(B) V # E
(C) 7 U 8
(D) V 7 #
(E) None of these

Q29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) A 4 *
(B) T B Y
(C) 9 I W
(D) V 5 U
(E) P S 6

Q30. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a vowel and immediately preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and then decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) if both statement I and II are independent causes.
(D) if both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) if both statement I and II are effects of some common cause.

Q31. I. The government has amended tax laws to boost exports.
II. The export sector has been passing through difficult times due to heavy tax burdens.

Q32. I. Budgetary allocation for building a better railway network e.g. constructing new railway lines has increased.
II. There has been a substantial drop in the number of passenger opting for air travel.

Q33. I. The production of pulses has dropped for the third consecutive year.
II. India has decided to import pulses this year.

Q34. I. The Bank has provided a link on its website to obtain feed-back from customers.
II. Customers have been complaining about poor services in the Bank’s branches.

Q35. I. Indian citizens are willing to incur the cost of using environment friendly technology.
II. Many countries are taking steps to cut their carbon emissions.

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Below is given a passange followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon the degree of its truth or falsity. Mark answer—
(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it properly follows from the statements of facts given.
(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(C) if the ‘data are inadequate’ i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the data is likely to be true or false.
(D) if the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
(E) if the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it cannot be drawn from the given facts or contradicts the given facts.
The pace of recruitment has unmistakably picked up in the last few months. After two abysmal quarters the business sentiment has turned positive. A flurry of hiring activity has been observed across the manufacturing sector and the IT and ITES sector catering to telecom and legal process outsourcing. The advent of new players and an aggressive expansion of telecom giants has seen a bullish outlook for the industry with a promise of exponential growth. But is the worst over for businesses across the spectrum ? Firms are going back to the drawing board and dusting off their plans to see if there is scope for atleast incremental hiring in specific domains where they want to build expertise. Besides that there are few signs to show that there is a broad based revival in the market.

Q36. Companies in various sectors have projected higher business growth in the near future.

Q37. The telecom sector has experienced negative growth in the past few years.

Q38. Many companies in the manufacturing sector have decided to reduce their fresh intake of employees.

Q39. Persons with legal qualifications and expertise will earn more in the future.

Q40. Most companies across sectors have decided to increase their manpower requirement manifold.

Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and mark the letter of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter :
T A G R S D N E V U X P
Digit/Symbol Code :
@ 4 9 # % 3 ©5 1 β7 6
Conditions—(i) if the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel only the first letter may be coded and no code
may be given to the last letter.
(ii) if both the first and last letters are vowels then both are to be coded as $.
(iii) if the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant then the codes are to be interchanged.

Q41. DESGRT
(A) 35%9#
(B) 35%9#@
(C) @5%9#3
(D) 359%#@
(E) None of these

Q42. NERSPU
(A) @5#%6@
(B) @5#56©
(C) ©5#%6
(D) ©5#%6β
(E) None of these

Q43. XNTPGA
(A) 7©@694
(B) 7©@964
(C) 4©@69
(D) 7©@69
(E) None of these

Q44. ESVNTU
(A) $%1©@$
(B) 5%1©@β
(C) $%1©@β 
(D) $%1©β 5
(E) None of these

Q45. UXPTGN
(A) ©76@9β 
(B) $76@9©
(C) β 76@9©
(D) β 76@9B
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing. Given answer—
(A) if only Course of action I follows.
(B) if only Course of action II follows.
(C) if either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.
(D) if neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.
(E) if both courses of action I and II follow.

Q46. Statement : An increasing number of graduates produced by Indian universities are unemployable.
Courses of action :I. Colleges and Institutes of higher learning should be given greater autonomy to decide course content.
II. World class foreign universities should be encouraged to set up campuses in India.

Q47. Statement : Heavy rains hit the state during October, just before the State Assembly elections and caused heavy damage to standing crops in most parts of the state.
Courses of action :I. Elections should be postponed to give candidates the opportunity to campaign.
II. The Government should announce a relief package for those who are affected.

Q48. Statement : Cell phone users have found that tariff plans are not as attractive as promoted by telecome companies and complained to regulatory authority about the same.
Courses of action :I. The regulatory authority should direct telecome companies to be transparent on the tariff structure of all plans.
II. The government should restrict the number of telecome companies operating in the country.

Q49. Statement : A number of school children in the local schools have fallen ill after the consumption of their subsidised tiffin provided by the school authority.
Courses of action :I. The tiffin facility of all schools should be discontinued with immediate effect.
II. The government should implement a system to certify the quality of tiffin provided by the school.

Q50. Statement : The dolphin population in India has been decreasing sharply over the past few years.
Courses of action :
I. Dolphins should be declared an endangered species and be bred in aquariums or protected areas.
II. Locals should be enlisted to protect dolphins.

Directions—(Q. 51–60) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow : 
A Research Institute is recruiting a libration to digitise its information resources among other duties. Candidates must possess the following criteria. The candidate must :
I. be not less than 35 years and not exceed 40 years as on 01- 11-2009.
II. have a Bachelor’s Degree in Library and Information Science with 65 per cent marks.
III. have a Ph.D. in Library Science.
IV. have post qualification experience of at least 4 years in a University Library.
However if the candidate fulfils the above mentioned criteria except—
(a) at (II) above but the candidates has a UGC NET certification with all the other above criteria fulfilled he/she may be referred to the Dean.
(b) at (IV) above but all the eligibility criteria are met and the candidate has at least one year’s experience in a research institute he/ she may be offered contractual appointment for a year.
Based on the above criteria study carefully whether the following candidates are eligible for the recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All cases are given to you as on 1-11-2009.
Mark answer :
(A) if he/she is to be shortlisted.
(B) if he/she is not to be shortlisted.
(C) if he/she should be referred to the Dean.
(D) if he/she may be offered contractual appointment if required.
(E) if the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.

Q51. Anil Rath has a doctorate in Library Science from Karnataka University in 2003. Born on July 21, 1969, he graduated in Library and Information Science from Karnataka University where he was Assistant Librarian for four years since 2005.

Q52. Dr. Samir Bali has a Ph.D. in Library Science and has been with the Institute of Fundamental Research as Assistant Librarian since October 2008. He graduated with a degree in Library and Information Science in 1994 at the age of 22. He obtained 70 per cent in his graduation.

Q53. Vaishali Shetty has a librarian at STS University since 2007 when she qualified in the UGC NET examination. She has a degree in Library and Information Science with 60 per cent. Her first job was as junior librarian at TRP Institute of Development Research from October 2000 to December 2001.

Q54. Vivek Jha has a Ph.D. in Library and Information Science. He graduated in Library and Information Science in 1992 with 65 per cent. He was born on 1-10- 1974. Since July 2005, he has been working as Deputy Librarian at a deemed University.

Q55. A graduate in Library Science with 69 per cent Dr. M. Puri has been working at Ranchi University for 4 years as Deputy Librarian. She earned her doctorate while working for the Labour Research Institute for 5 years as Assistant Librarian. She is 38 years old as on the required date.

Q56. Megha Vaidya has a graduate degree in Library Science from Punjab University where she has been a librarian for the past 5 years. In 2002 she obtained her UGC NET qualification at the age of 29. She obtained 72 per cent graduation.

Q57. Anup Gupta is obtaining his Ph.D. from YCM University where he has been Junior Librarian since 2004. He qualified in the UGC NET exam. in June, 2000. He has a degree in Library and Information Science with 62 per cent. His date of birth is 17-10-1973.

Q58. Kirti Shukla obtained her doctorate and Bachelor’s degree from Patna University. She obtained 63 per cent at graduation. She obtained her UGC NET qualification in 1998 when she was 26.

Q59. Prakash Sinha has been a librarian for a government institution for three years. Prior to this he was a University Librarian for 7 years after completing his Ph.D. in Library Science. He graduated in 1991 with 68 per cent in Library Science. He is exactly 40 years of age on the specified date.

Q60. Rohan Sachdev obtained his UGC NET qualification after his graduation in 1998 when he began working. He has been Assistant Librarian for the past two years with a research instiute. He obtained 65 per cent in his graduation in Library Science. He earned his Ph.D. in Library Science in 2007. His date of birth is 22-10-1974.
Haryana Kshetriya Gramin Bank Question Papers - Reasoning