tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-79679299502384848692024-03-14T17:59:40.250+05:30IBPS Previous Year Question | PO | Clerk | RRB | SOIBPS Previous Year Question Papers. PO Previous Questions. Clerk Model Question. IBPS RRB Sample Papers. Specialist Officers Old Question with Answers.Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.comBlogger1251125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-82646239369986471382021-08-22T14:48:00.000+05:302021-08-22T14:48:41.777+05:30Union Bank Model Questions Answers Papers | Syllabus<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
The <b><a href="https://www.unionbankofindia.co.in/english/home.aspx" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">Union Bank of India</a></b> released a Notification for the candidates who are looking for the Security Officer Jobs. For those candidates, we provided the Complete details of Union Bank of India PO Recruitment here. Aspirants can get the eligibility details from this link and apply. </div><div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on"><br /><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;">
<img alt="Union Bank Model Questions Answers" border="0" data-original-height="151" data-original-width="151" height="320" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEj5igj0HPxc60onE5ArhvLBxRNKlvUtCHHGI_jj7FDh06GDm0-CZL9zooFUEmre66Ii4iPc3z0qEjbvK5JzpmCvLs29-VG-rHsEFa1x9A1mNlY2xGOu9cdNZg8Qt0KdrULCSJgL3hAMCzTD/w320-h320/Union+Bank+of+India.jpg" title="Union Bank Model Questions Answers" width="320" /></div></div><div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">After applying for these Jobs, candidates can get the Last 5 years Union Bank of India PO Previous Papers pdf from the links given below. Download those papers and practice them. Therefore, you can improve your Solving Skills. These papers will help you to crack the Exam. So download the Union Bank Multipurpose Assistant <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2011/12/union-bank-of-india-question-papers.html">Question Papers</a> and make use of them in your Preparation.</div><div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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<h2 style="text-align: center;">
<u>Union Bank Previous Year Question Papers</u></h2>
<br />
1. ‘Captain’ is related to a ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Director’ is related to <br />
(1) Supervisor<br />
(2) Employee <br />
(3) Organisation <br />
(4) Union <br />
(5) Customer <br />
<br />
2. Find the odd one out of the following options <br />
(1) Aunt <br />
(2) Child <br />
(3) Father <br />
(4) Niece <br />
(5) No Relation <br />
<br />
3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. “The father of his sister is the husband of my wife’s mother”. How is Ram related to Mahesh? <br />
(1) Brother <br />
(2) Brother-in-law <br />
(3) Father-in-law <br />
(4) Data not sufficient <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
4. If ‘fork’ is called ‘plate’, ‘plate’ is called ‘knife’, ‘knife’ is called ‘jug’, ‘jug’ is called ‘glass’, ‘glass’ is called ‘cup’ and ‘cup’ is called ‘fork’, by what do we cut fruit? <br />
(1) spoon <br />
(2) jug <br />
(3) glass <br />
(4) saucer <br />
(5) none of these <br />
<br />
5. If ‘a’ is substituted by 26,’B’ by 25 and so on up to ‘Z’ which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY’? <br />
(1) 33 <br />
(2) 40 <br />
(3) 37 <br />
(4) 73 <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?<br />
(1) JOENQF <br />
(2) JMCPQD <br />
(3) JOEPSF <br />
(4) HMCNQD <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all? <br />
(1) Seeta <br />
(2) Geeta <br />
(3) Gayatri <br />
(4) Data not sufficient <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry? <br />
(1) Mahesh <br />
(2) Kamal <br />
(3) Raman <br />
(4) Harry <br />
(5) Cannot be determined <br />
<br />
9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T’ and without repeating any letter? <br />
(1) Three <br />
(2) One <br />
(3) Two <br />
(4) None <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence: <br />
A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ? J <br />
<br />
11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number? <br />
(1) One <br />
(2) Two <br />
(3) Three <br />
(4) Five <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed? <br />
(1) 5 <br />
(2) 4 <br />
(3) 7 <br />
(4) 8 <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol? <br />
(1) Two <br />
(2) Five <br />
(3) Four <br />
(4) Three <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement? <br />
(1) # <br />
(2) 7 <br />
(3) U <br />
(4) 9 <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? <br />
(1) G$M <br />
(2) K9Q <br />
(3) ?D7 <br />
(4) 2MU <br />
(5) PCI <br />
<br />
16. In a certain code language’ In ba pe’ means ‘he has won’,’le ki ba’ means ‘she has lost’ and ‘in se pe’ means ‘he always won’. Which word in that language means ‘he’? <br />
(1) in <br />
(2) pe <br />
(3) se <br />
(4) Data not sufficient <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
17. X is Y’s brother. S is T’s mother and X’s aunt. How is T related to X? <br />
(1) Sister <br />
(2) Cousin <br />
(3) Aunt <br />
(4) Cannot be determined <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters? <br />
(1) TNAVERSBO <br />
(2) TNVARESBO <br />
(3) NTAVERSBO <br />
(4) VANTRESBO <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
19. If 1 is coded as S, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671? <br />
(1) ? + % « # S <br />
(2) ? + % S # « <br />
(3) ? + « % # S <br />
(4) S # « % + ? <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE? <br />
(1) SWORN: NSOWR <br />
(2) FUNDS: FSDUN <br />
(3) GLAZE : EGZAL <br />
(4) LOWER: RLEWO <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions: Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel. <br />
<br />
(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products. <br />
(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go’ advertises neither soap nor computers. <br />
(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates. <br />
(iv) No girl advertises soap. <br />
(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice <br />
<br />
21. Who advertises watches? <br />
(1) Deepa <br />
(2) Kamal <br />
(3) Aman <br />
(4) Priyanka <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect? <br />
(1) Go-watch <br />
(2) Come-computer <br />
(3) Go-soap <br />
(4) Come-soap <br />
(5) Come-watch <br />
<br />
23. Which channel does Kamal visit? <br />
(1) Go <br />
(2) Fun <br />
(3) Come <br />
(4) Cannot be determined <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true? <br />
(1) Jitu advertises soap <br />
(2) Jitu advertises watches <br />
(3) Kamal advertises computers <br />
(4) Kamal works for Fun <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
25. What will Jitu advertise? <br />
(1) Chocolates <br />
(2) Watches <br />
(3) Computers or watches <br />
(4) Cannot be determined <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar? <br />
(1) 3 ½ hours <br />
(2) 2 ½ hours <br />
(3) 4 ½ hours <br />
(4) Cannot be determined <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language? <br />
(1) One <br />
(2) Two <br />
(3) Four <br />
(4) Three <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
28. Find the odd one out <br />
(1) 2 <br />
(2) 7 <br />
(3) 11 <br />
(4) 13 <br />
(5) 9 <br />
<br />
29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters? <br />
(1) BDHEKLQT <br />
(2) BDEHKLQT <br />
(3) BDEHLKQT <br />
(4) BDEJMLQT <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers. <br />
(1) 9 <br />
(2) 21 <br />
(3) 17 <br />
(4) Cannot be determined <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these’. <br />
Letters M Q I N E Y U G R <br />
Numeric Codes 2 5 3 7 1 8 4 6 9 <br />
<br />
Conditions: <br />
(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as S. <br />
(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %. <br />
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as? <br />
<br />
31. ENIMY <br />
(1) 1%28 <br />
(2) ?732? <br />
(3) 17328 <br />
(4) ?7328 <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
32. GENIR <br />
(1) ?173? <br />
(2) 6%39 <br />
(3) 6%79 <br />
(4) 61739 <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
33. QUERI <br />
(1) 5%93 <br />
(2) ?413? <br />
(3) ?4139 <br />
(4) ?419? <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
34. EINUM <br />
(1) 1%72 <br />
(2) 0%42 <br />
(3) 1374? <br />
(4) 1%43 <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
35. UNGRE <br />
(1) S769 S <br />
(2) 4769 S <br />
(3) 47691 <br />
(4) S7691 <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts. <br />
<br />
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. <br />
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows. <br />
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. <br />
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. <br />
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow. <br />
<br />
36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink <br />
Conclusions: <br />
I. Some ink are pencils. <br />
II. All ink are lead. <br />
<br />
37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs. <br />
Conclusions: <br />
I. Some ACs are ovens. <br />
II. No. AC is oven. <br />
<br />
38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds. <br />
Conclusions: <br />
I. Some planes are clouds. <br />
II. Some clouds are birds. <br />
<br />
39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice. <br />
Conclusions: <br />
I.. Some sweets are spice. <br />
II. No spice is salt. <br />
<br />
40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes. <br />
Conclusions: <br />
I. Some plastics are clothes. <br />
II. Some plastics are papers. <br />
<br />
Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and: <br />
<br />
Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question. <br />
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. <br />
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. <br />
Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. <br />
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. <br />
<br />
41. How is ‘cricket’ written in a code language? <br />
I. ‘Dinesh play cricket’ is written as ‘do si ha’. <br />
II. ‘play cricket now’ is written as ‘ha si ma’. <br />
<br />
42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P? <br />
I. P is older than M and N but not O. <br />
II. L is older than O. <br />
<br />
43. When is Rahul’s birthday? <br />
I. Rahul and Shivani are twins. <br />
II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year. <br />
<br />
44. What is the strength of the class? <br />
I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last. <br />
II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top. <br />
<br />
45. How far does Shruti live from the school? <br />
I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina’s house which is 4 kms. From thee school. <br />
II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti’s house. <br />
<br />
Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below: <br />
972 526 487 359 251 <br />
<br />
46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order? <br />
(1) 359 <br />
(2) 972 <br />
(3) 526 <br />
(4) 487 <br />
(5) 251 <br />
<br />
47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5? <br />
(1) None <br />
(2) One <br />
(3) Two <br />
(4) Three <br />
(5) None of these <br />
<br />
48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers? <br />
(1) None <br />
(2) Two <br />
(3) One <br />
(4) Three <br />
(5) All five <br />
<br />
49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number? <br />
(1) 251 <br />
(2) 359 <br />
(3) 487 <br />
(4) 526 <br />
(5) 972 <br />
<br />
50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest? <br />
(1) 972 <br />
(2) 526 <br />
(3) 487 <br />
(4) 251 <br />
(5) 359<br />
<br />
<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Model Question Papers of Union Bank</h2>
Started preparation for Union Bank Integrated Treasury Officer Exam? Hey, there are few days only for the Union Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam. Why Late? Start preparation by downloading the Union Bank Fire Officer Previous Year Question Papers PDF. Here, we are providing the Union Bank Clerk Solved Papers & Answers. Interested candidates who want to grab a job in the Union Bank of India can use these Union Bank Forex Officer Old Papers as a reference for preparation. Download Union Bank PO <b>Previous Papers</b> from provided links. Therefore, you will get PDF files subject wise. Finally, get a good score in the Union Bank of India Clerk by using Union Bank Multipurpose Assistant Recruitment Practice Papers. <br />
<br />
<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Previously Asked Old Question Papers of Union Bank</h2>
The individuals who are about to start their preparation can download Union Bank Clerk Syllabus here. The contenders can perform well in the examination when they prepare all the topics in the syllabus. For the sake of the applied candidates, we provide the direct link for the Syllabus. So, download it and prepare The Union Bank of India PO Previous Papers Free downloading links are updated here. Hence, candidates who applied for Office Assistant jobs may download Union Bank of India Forex Officer Question Paper with Answer Pdf for free of cost. <br />
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<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Union Bank Sample Question Papers with Answers</h2>
The Union Bank of India has recently released the recruitment notification for filling vacant positions. The commenced the advertisements for recruiting candidates into PO vacancies. Candidates who aimed their career at the Union Bank of India Jobs can use this great opportunity. Visit the Official Website for the latest updates, alerts, recruitment notification, and so on. Interested aspirants can check the Official Notification for eligibility criteria, educational qualifications, job details, etc. The Security Officer vacant positions are in different. Eligible aspirants can apply Online for the Union Bank Probationary Officers from its official website. <br />
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<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Union Bank Old Question Set</h2>
Many applicants are searching on the Internet for the Union Bank of India Economist Exam <b>Model Question Papers</b> & Previous Years Papers. Those can refer this page for the Union Bank of India Clerk Old Papers PDF, Union Bank Clerk <b>Sample Papers</b> along with the answers. Here, we provide the Union Bank of India Exam Solved Papers. The Previous Papers are one of the important & essential things for the exam preparation. With the reference of these Union Bank of India Previous Papers, you will get an idea about the difficulty level of the written examination, subjects & weight-age soon. <br />
<br />
<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Union Bank Question Answer Papers</h2>
The Union Bank of India released the notification for filling Office Assistant Vacancies. A huge number of contenders have applied for these jobs and searching for Union Bank of India Fire Officer Previous Papers. To give proper guidance for the applied contenders, we displaced the Union Bank Office Assistant Question Papers with Answers. Therefore, make use of those papers for getting a high score in the examination. The updated Union Bank of India Office Assistant Sample Papers are only for reference purpose. Hence, individuals make use of those papers only for testing your capability that how many marks you can secure in the exam. For more information regarding the Specialist Officer Exam, refer the official website. Here, we also enclosed the link for Syllabus and Exam Pattern. So, refer them and prepare all the topics in the syllabus according to the exam pattern.</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-56423208861856750742021-08-09T14:16:00.001+05:302021-08-09T14:16:45.681+05:30IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Previous Year Question Papers<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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Solve <b>IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Previous Year Question Papers</b> enclosed in the previous year’s question papers Pdf below. Referring to all the papers given helps the candidates with time management in the main examination. Also, helps in understanding the exam paper easily and score marks. Hope our material helps you in preparation. Share the URL with friends who are looking for <a href="https://www.idbi.com/index.asp" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">IDBI Bank</a> Assistant Manager question paper pdf.<br />
Practices <b>IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Previous Year Papers</b>? Need more IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Model Question Papers, then stay. We will update few more IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Question Papers PDF after we find them in different resources. Download the IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Previous Papers along with Answers and prepare well to show your best in the exam. IDBI Bank Assistant Manager previous year <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2011/09/idbi-bank-ltd-question-papers-english.html">question papers with answers</a> pdf are given here.<br />
Aspirants can download the pdf for free of cost. IDBI Bank <b>Assistant Manager</b> previous papers help the applicants in preparation. Hence, find the direct download links below and start your preparation today.<br />
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<u>IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Old Question</u></h2>
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Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-53192872703486978282021-08-09T14:16:00.000+05:302021-08-09T14:16:04.473+05:30IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Sample Question Paper on Reasoning<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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<b style="text-align: justify;">IDBI Bank Sample Question Papers</b><span style="text-align: justify;">: Candidates who applied for the </span><a href="https://www.idbi.com/index.asp" rel="nofollow" style="text-align: justify;" target="_blank">IDBI Bank</a><span style="text-align: justify;"> can find the Previous Year Question Paper in the sections below. Before, going to download section here is some of the important details regarding the IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Exam Pdf. Also, check the Exam Pattern and Selection Process details in the section below. </span><br />
<div style="text-align: justify;">
Furthermore, candidates can check the official notification. Free IDBI Bank Sample Question Paper Pdf download link is given in the table below. Here we have given the links for IDBI Bank Study material which helps the applicants in preparation. Find the model Question paper for Assistant Manager below. Aspirants who are looking for IDBI Bank Assistant Manager <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2019/04/idbi-bank-assistant-manager-model-question.html">Exam Paper</a> can find in this section. </div>
<div style="text-align: justify;">
The Papers given in the table below can be downloaded with a single click on the link. However, the sample papers given below are only for reference purpose. Hence, download the Sample Pdf and refer all the Model Paper with answers given.</div>
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<h2 style="text-align: center;">
IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Questions and Answers</h2>
Directions (Q. 1-5): In the questions given below, certain symbols are used with the following meanings:<br />
A @ B means A is greater than B. <br />
A * B means A is either greater than or equal to B. <br />
A # B means A is equal to B.<br />
A $ B means A is either smaller than or equal to B. <br />
A + B means A is smaller than B.<br />
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?<br />
Give answer (1): if only conclusion I is true<br />
Give answer (2): if only conclusion II is true<br />
Give answer (3): if either conclusion I or II is true<br />
Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor II is true<br />
Give answer (5): if both conclusions I and II are true<br />
<br />
1. Statements: B+D, E$T; T*P; P@B<br />
Conclusions: I. P$D II. P@D<br />
<br />
2. Statements: E*F; G$H; H#E; G@K<br />
Conclusions: I. H@K II. H*F<br />
<br />
3. Statements: P$Q, N#M, M@R, R*P<br />
Conclusions: I. P+N II. Q$M<br />
<br />
4. Statements: D+T, E$V, F*T, E@D<br />
Conclusions: I. D$V II. D+F<br />
<br />
5. Statements: T*U, U$W, V@L, W+V<br />
Conclusions: I. V@T II. L#W<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 6-12): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:<br />
A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.<br />
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by<br />
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked<br />
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on <br />
<br />
6. If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work to for’, what will be the pass code for the sixth batch?<br />
1) work hard to for succeed night and day<br />
2) hard work for and succeed night to day<br />
3) work hard for to succeed night and day<br />
4) hard work for to succeed night and day<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
7. If visit in zoo should the we time day’ is the pass-code for the fifth batch, ‘zoo we the should visit day time in will be the pass-code for which of the following batches?<br />
1) II<br />
2) IV<br />
3) I<br />
4) III<br />
5) VI<br />
<br />
8. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code to fast rush avoid not do very run. What would have been the pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second batch?<br />
1) rush do not avoid to run very fast<br />
2) rush not do avoid to run very fast<br />
3) avoid rush not do to run very fast<br />
4) Data inadequate<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
9. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ‘length the day equal of and night are’. However, he could not visit the museum in the second batch as he was little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass code issued to him?<br />
1) and of are night the length equal day<br />
2) and are of night the length equal day<br />
3) and of are night the equal day length<br />
4) and of are the night length day equal<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
10. If pass-code for the second batch is ‘to confidence hard you leads work and success’, what Will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?<br />
1) leads success to you hard confidence and work<br />
2) leads success you to hard confidence and work<br />
3) leads success to you hard confidence work and<br />
4) leads to success you hard confidence and work<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
11. If the pass-code issued for the last (sixth) batch is ‘and pencil by all boys used are pen’, what will be the pass-code for the first batch?<br />
1) pencil and pen are used by all boys<br />
2) pen and pencil used are by all boys<br />
3) pen and pencil are used by all boys<br />
4) pencil and pen are used all by boys<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
12. If the pass-code for the sixth batch is ‘not go the way to of out do’, what will be the pass-code for the third batch‘?<br />
1) of do to out go not way the<br />
2) of to do out not go way the<br />
3) of to go out do not way the<br />
4) Data inadequate <br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
13. If in the English alphabet, all the letters at odd-numbered positions are written in serial order from left to right followed by the letters at even-numbered positions written in reverse order, which letter will be sixth to the left of seventeenth letter from left?<br />
1) D<br />
2) B<br />
3) V<br />
4) U<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, fourth, fifth, eleventh and thirteenth letters of the Word ESTABLISHMENT, using each letter only once, write second letter of that word as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, write ‘M’ as your answer and if no such word can be formed, write ‘X’ as your answer.<br />
1) B<br />
2) A<br />
3) E<br />
4) M<br />
5) X<br />
<br />
15. In a certain code language ‘CYLINDER’ is written as ‘UHGQGJWA’. How will ‘HYDROGEN’ be written in that code?<br />
1) QHJROBWF<br />
2) QHJRPBWF<br />
3) QJHRPBWF<br />
4) QHRJOBWF <br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 16-19): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.<br />
(i) A group of five boys viz. A, B, C, D and E and a group of five girls viz. P, Q, R, S and T are standing in rows facing each other not necessarily in the same order. The group of boys is facing south.<br />
(ii) E is not at any of the ends. C is to the immediate right of B and D is to the immediate left of A, who is facing P. There are as many girls between P and Q as between R and S. A is second to the left of B, S and R are not facing either B or D.<br />
<br />
16. Which of the following indicates the pair of boys standing at the ends of the row?<br />
1) CB<br />
2) DB<br />
3) CD<br />
4) Data inadequate<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
17. Which of the following is definitely true on the basis of the given information?<br />
1) C is second to the right of D<br />
2) P is third to the right of Q<br />
3) S is to the immediate right of P<br />
4) E is facing T<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
18. Who is standing to the immediate right of A?<br />
1) E<br />
2) C<br />
3) B<br />
4) Data inadequate <br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
19. Who is facing B?<br />
1) R<br />
2) S<br />
3) Q<br />
4) Data inadequate<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
20. "Some books are pens", "All pencils are erasers" and Some pens are pencils". If all these statements are true, which of the following statements is definitely true?<br />
1) Some pencils are books.<br />
2) Some books are pencils.<br />
3) No books are erasers.<br />
4) Some erasers are pens.<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
21. Boys and girls are made to sit in 5 rows and 5 columns all of them facing North. A is at the centre of the arrangement, P is to the immediate right of A, Q is just behind P and R is to the North of A. Q is in which direction with respect to R?<br />
1) South<br />
2) South-West <br />
3) North-East<br />
4) Data inadequate<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
22. A$ B means B is father of A; A#B means B is mother of A; A*B means B is sister of A; and A@B means is husband of A; then which of the following indicates the relationship ‘N grandmother of P?<br />
1) P*Q#M$N <br />
2) P@Q$M#N <br />
3) P#Q$N*M<br />
4) P$Q#M@N <br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 23-25): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.<br />
(i) In a joint family of seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G, two are married couples.<br />
(ii) ‘G’ is a housewife and her husband is a lawyer. ‘C’ is wife of ‘B’, ‘A’ is an engineer and is granddaughter of ‘G’. ‘D’ is father-in-law of ‘C’, a doctor, and father of ‘E’, a Professor. ‘F’ is A’s brother and B’s son.<br />
<br />
23. How is F related to C?<br />
1) Son<br />
2) Brother<br />
3) Daughter<br />
4) Data inadequate <br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
24. How is B related to E?<br />
1) Sister<br />
2) Uncle<br />
3) Cousin<br />
4) Data inadequate <br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
25. Who is a lawyer?<br />
1) B<br />
2) F<br />
3) D<br />
4) Data inadequate <br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 26-30): In each question below are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.<br />
<br />
26. Statements: Some spectacles are boxes. No bat is a ball. Some boxes are balls.<br />
Conclusions: I. Some boxes are not bats.<br />
II. Some bats are spectacles.<br />
III. No bat is a box.<br />
IV. No ball is a spectacle.<br />
1) Only I follows<br />
2) Only I and III follow<br />
3) Only II and III follow<br />
4) Only IV follows<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
27. Statements: All fans are tubelights. No pen is a bulb. Some bulbs are fans.<br />
Conclusions: I. Some pens are tubelights.<br />
II. No pens are tubelights.<br />
III. Some tubelights are fans.<br />
IV. All tubelights are fans.<br />
1) Only I and II follow<br />
2) Only I, II and III follow<br />
3) Either I or II and III follow<br />
4) Only III and IV follow<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
28. Statements: Some fruits are vegetables. All liquids are drinks. All drinks are fruits. <br />
Conclusions: I. Some drinks are vegetables.<br />
II. Some fruits are liquids.<br />
III. All liquids are fruits.<br />
IV. No liquids are vegetables.<br />
1) Only I and II follow<br />
2) Only II and III follow<br />
3) Only III and IV follow <br />
4) Only l, II and III follow<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
29. Statements: All shirts are trousers. Some socks are shoes. All shoes are shirts.<br />
Conclusions: I. Some socks are shirts.<br />
II. Some socks are trousers.<br />
III. All shoes are trousers.<br />
IV. All shoes are socks.<br />
1) Only l and II follow<br />
2) Only I or II or III follows<br />
3) Only II and IV follow <br />
4) Only III and IV follow<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
30. Statements: Some books are papers. All plates are records. Some records are books.<br />
Conclusions: I. Some plates are books.<br />
II. Some records are papers.<br />
III. Some papers are plates.<br />
IV. Some books are records.<br />
1) Only l follows<br />
2) Only II and III follow<br />
3) Only I and III follow <br />
4) Only IV follows<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 31-35): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the statements and Give answer<br />
1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.<br />
2) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.<br />
3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.<br />
4) If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.<br />
5) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.<br />
<br />
31. Who scored highest among A, B, C, D, and E?<br />
I. B scored more than D, but not as much as C.<br />
II. E scored more than C but not more than A.<br />
<br />
32. How many boys are there in the class?<br />
I. Mita’s rank among girls is 5th from the top and her rank in the class is 9th from the bottom.<br />
II. No. of boys in the class is twice the number of girls.<br />
<br />
33. Who is to the immediate right of P among five persons P, Q, R, S and T facing North?<br />
I. R is third to the left of Q; P is second to the right of R.<br />
II. Q is to the immediate left of Q, who is second to the right of P.<br />
<br />
34. Z is in which direction with respect of X?<br />
I. Y is to the South of X and Z is to the East of P, which is to the North of Y.<br />
II. P is to the South of X.<br />
<br />
35. How is P related to N?<br />
I. N is sister of M, who is son of Q, whose wife is P.<br />
II. M is brother of N and son of Q, whose wife is P.<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 36-40): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, even if they are at variance with the commonly known facts. Then consider the two conclusions together ignoring the commonly known facts and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Give answer<br />
(1) If only conclusion I follows.<br />
(2) If only conclusion II follows.<br />
(3) If either I or Il follows.<br />
(4) If neither I nor II follows, and<br />
(5) If both I and II follow.<br />
<br />
36. Statement: On metro section of railways, the motormen are frequently required to do overtime during May and June though all vacancies are completely filled as per requirement of this section.<br />
Conclusions:<br />
I. Many motormen take leave of shorter or longer duration during this period.<br />
II. Some motormen desire to earn overtime whenever possible.<br />
<br />
37. Statement: The President of XYZ party indicated that 25 independent Members of Legislative Assembly (MLA) are seriously considering various options of joining some political party. But in any case all of them collectively will join one party only.<br />
Conclusions:<br />
I. The 25 independent MLAs will join XYZ party in a short period of time.<br />
II. The 25 independent MLAs will join some other political party in a short period of time.<br />
<br />
38. Statement: ‘Our approach of fund management is based on science as much as on common sense and discipline because our goal is consistent performance in the long term. — Advertisement of a mutual fund company.<br />
Conclusions:<br />
I. Only the approach of science of investment can lead to high gains in short-term investment.<br />
II. It is not necessary to go for long-term investment when low-return short-term investment is available.<br />
<br />
39. Statement: We follow some of the best and effective teaching learning practices used by leading institutes all over the world. - A statement of a Professor of MN Institute.<br />
Conclusions:<br />
I. The MN Institute is one of the leading institutes of the world.<br />
II. Whatever is being followed by world’s leading institutes will definitely be good and useful.<br />
<br />
40. Statement: The Bank of England’s move to auction 25 metric tons of gold drew plenty of bidders looking for a bargain, but was criticised by major gold producers worldwide.<br />
Conclusions:<br />
I. The Bank of England should not auction gold which it possesses to keep steady international prices of gold.<br />
II. Bidders should quote higher gold prices to retain present value of gold in the international markets.<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 41-45): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.<br />
Give answer (1): if only assumption I is implicit.<br />
Give answer (2): if only assumption II is implicit.<br />
Give answer (3): if either I or II is implicit.<br />
Give answer (4): if neither I nor II is implicit, and<br />
Give answer (5): if both I and II are implicit.<br />
<br />
41. Statement: ‘Country A would explore all channels to diffuse current tensions with country B and bring peace on its borders.’ — Statement of spokesperson of country A.<br />
Assumptions:<br />
I. Country A is desirous to diffuse current tension and restore peace with country B<br />
II. It is desirable to use more than one channel when complex issues are to be settled amicably.<br />
<br />
42. Statement: Two months ago, it was announced that Central government pensioners would get dearness relief with immediate effect but till date, banks have not credited the arrears.’ – A statement from a Pensioners’ Forum.<br />
Assumptions: <br />
I. Most of the banks normally take care of the pensioners.<br />
II. Two months’ time is sufficient for the government machinery to move and give effect to pensioners.<br />
<br />
43. Statement: ‘The bridge was built at the cost of Rs 128 crores and even civil bus service is not utilising it. What a pity to see it grossly underutilised!’ — A citizen’s view on a new flyover linking east and west sides of a suburb.<br />
Assumptions: <br />
I. The building of such bridges does not serve any public objective.<br />
II. There has to be some accountability and utility of money spent on public projects.<br />
<br />
44. Statement: ‘Use our product to improve memory of your child; it is based on natural herbs and has no harmful side-effects.’ - Advertisement of a pharmaceutical company.<br />
Assumptions: <br />
I. People generally opt for a medical product which is useful and has no harmful side effects.<br />
II. Improving memory of child is considered as important by many parents.<br />
<br />
45. Statement: The traders of State K would observe a statewide bandh as the state has failed to meet their demand to resolve sales tax and other issues.<br />
Assumptions: <br />
I. The traders of State K have earlier tried other usual procedures to get their problems solved.<br />
II. State K is not keen to solve the problem of traders.<br />
Directions (Q. 46-53): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.<br />
Mark answer (1): if the inference is "definitely true" i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.<br />
Mark answer (2): if the inference is "probably true" thought not "definitely true" in the light of the facts given.<br />
Mark answer (3): if the "data are inadequate" i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.<br />
Mark answer (4): if the inference is "probably false" though not "definitely false" in the light of the facts given.<br />
Mark answer (5): if the inference is "definitely false" i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.<br />
<br />
In India the asbestos industry is growing and employs more than 15,000 people in 75 units which are spread over several states like Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh etc. Surprisingly, advanced countries are banning cancer-causing asbestos products, but multinational companies are from those countries which are setting up units in developing countries like India. One reason is lack of awareness in the society and indifference of the government machinery of these countries. Prolonged exposure to asbestos dust and fibres can cause lung cancer but most workers in India are too afraid to protest for fear of losing jobs. Some of these factories are operating in Mumbai. Quite a few of the factories in India are not known to take adequate precautions to protect workers from asbestos dust.<br />
The Government is taking several steps to provide medical inspection of workers. In fact it has amended Factories Act to extend the provision to even those factories employing less than 10 workers.<br />
<br />
46. The asbestos industry is one of the largest industries in India.<br />
47. The asbestos industries in India are located in a few metropolitan pockets only.<br />
48. The advanced countries are concerned and careful to protect health hazards of their people.<br />
49. The demand for asbestos products appears to be growing in India.<br />
50. The Governments of developing countries appear to be not taking appropriate measures while granting permission to set up production units of multinational companies in their countries.<br />
51. The asbestos industry offers better salaries in India as compared to other hazardous industries.<br />
52. The regular medical inspection and treatment of asbestos workers has improved the health status in advanced countries.<br />
53. The workers from asbestos industries do not protest against the health hazards and lack of medical facilities as most of them do not stiffer from asbestos dust.<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 54-60): A public charitable trust desires to select ‘Medical Officers’ for its rural hospital based on following criteria. The applicant must<br />
(i) be holding MBBS degree with minimum 50% marks.<br />
(ii) have minimum 4 years of experience of full-time practice in rural areas.<br />
(iii) be ready to execute a bond of 3 years of service.<br />
(iv) have good knowledge of the local language.<br />
In case of the applicant who satisfies all other criteria except—<br />
(a) at (ii) above, but has 4 years of full-time experience of either urban or semiurban area and spent at least 5 years in rural area any time during his life, be referred to Secretary of the Trust.<br />
(b) at (iv) above, but has working knowledge of Hindi, be referred to Assistant Secretary of the Trust.<br />
(c) at (i) above, but has minimum 45% of marks at MBBS and has done MS or MD with minimum 50%, be referred to the Chief Medical Officer (CMO).<br />
(d) at (iii) above, but is ready to give Rs 25,000 as security money, be referred to the President of the Trust.<br />
Based on these criteria and the information provided below, decide the course of action in each case. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided is not adequate to decide the given course of action, your answer will be data inadequate. All cases given to you fulfill criterion of age and therefore no details of age are provided. The cases are given to you today.<br />
<br />
54. Sidhant has studied in rural areas while doing his schooling. His father is a farmer. Sidhant completed his MBBS from Mumbai and has six years of experience of practice in a big city. He has good knowledge of the local language and working knowledge of Hindi. He is ready to execute 3 years bond of service. He has done MS with 53% marks.<br />
1) To be selected<br />
2) Data inadequate<br />
3) Refer to the CMO <br />
4) Not to be selected<br />
5) Refer to the Secretary<br />
<br />
55. Mangesh has secured 47% marks at MBBS and has done his MD with 62% marks. He has 5 years of experience of running a dispensary in a village and can read, write and speak the local language. He is ready to give a bond of only two years of service and is unable to-give security money as he wants to start a rural hospital afterwards in Andhra Pradesh.<br />
1) Data inadequate<br />
2) To be selected<br />
3) Not to be selected<br />
4) Refer to the President of the Trust<br />
5) Refer to the CMO<br />
<br />
56. Romila is born and brought up in a big urban city. Her father is an industrialist. She has secured 87%, 56% and 48% at HSC, MBBS and MD respectively. She is willing to give a bond of 3 years of service. She has worked for 5 years in a rural hospital but can hardly speak the local language. However, she has working knowledge of Hindi. After this experience she plans to settle abroad.<br />
1) Refer to Asst Secretary<br />
2) Refer to President<br />
3) To be selected<br />
4) Not to be selected<br />
5) Data inadequate<br />
<br />
57. Dr Murthy has stood first at MBBS after having obtained 78% marks. He has also completed MS with distinction. As he is planning to go abroad he is unwilling to give three years bond of service. Dr Murthy is fluent in the local language. He has six years of experience of practice in a rural hospital and he is not in a position to give Rs 25,000 as security money.<br />
1) Refer to the President<br />
2) To be selected<br />
3) Not to be selected<br />
4) Data inadequate<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
58. Jenifer did her MD alter doing her MBBS. She is ready to execute three years bond of service. She has good command over local language as well as Hindi. She has practised for 5 1/2 years in a remote village out of her love for social service. She has obtained 77%, 88%, 47% and 56% at SSC. HSC. MBBS, and MD respectively.<br />
1) Refer to Assistant Secretary<br />
2) Data inadequate<br />
3) To be selected<br />
4) Not to be selected<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
59. lquabal Kureshi, son of a local politician, has been born and brought up in a village till SSC. Afterwards he studied in a big city and did his MBBS with 69% of marks followed by MS with 57% marks. He is ready to execute a bond of service for 3 years only. He has very good knowledge of the local language. He has done 4 Y2 years practice in the urban areas. He plans to start a rural hospital after this experience.<br />
1) Refer to the Secretary<br />
2) Refer to the CMO<br />
3) Data inadequate <br />
4) To be selected<br />
5) Not to be selected<br />
<br />
60. Durga, after obtaining her MBBS and MS, decided to practise in her native village for five years. She knows the local language very well. Her dispensary and small hospital were very popular in the nearby villages. She plans to go to USA and UK after spending 4 more years in India. She has secured more than 60% marks in all the examinations right from SSC to MS. She is ready to execute a bond of 3 years of service.<br />
1) Refer to CMO<br />
2) Not to be selected<br />
3) Data inadequate<br />
4) To be selected<br />
5) None of these<br />
<h2 style="text-align: center;">
Answers Sheet</h2>
<table border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tbody>
<tr>
<td valign="top" width="71">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="71">2</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">4</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">6</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">7</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">8</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">9</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">10</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top" width="71">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="71">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">2</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">4</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">4</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top" width="71">11</td>
<td valign="top" width="71">12</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">13</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">14</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">15</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">16</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">17</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">18</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">19</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">20</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top" width="71">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="71">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">4</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">4</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">2</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">4</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top" width="71">21</td>
<td valign="top" width="71">22</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">23</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">24</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">25</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">26</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">27</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">28</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">29</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">30</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top" width="71">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="71">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">2</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">4</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top" width="71">31</td>
<td valign="top" width="71">32</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">33</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">34</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">35</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">36</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">37</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">38</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">39</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">40</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top" width="71">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="71">4</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">4</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">4</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">4</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top" width="71">41</td>
<td valign="top" width="71">42</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">43</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">44</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">45</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">46</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">47</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">48</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">49</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">50</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top" width="71">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="71">2</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">2</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">2</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top" width="71">51</td>
<td valign="top" width="71">52</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">53</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">54</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">55</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">56</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">57</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">58</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">59</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">60</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td valign="top" width="71">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="71">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">2</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">3</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">5</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">1</td>
<td valign="top" width="72">2</td>
</tr>
</tbody></table>
<table bgcolor="#FFFFCC" border="1" cellspacing="9">
<tbody><tr>
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Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-23067783094672012572021-08-09T14:15:00.001+05:302021-08-09T14:15:53.969+05:30IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Model Question Paper on English<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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<b style="text-align: justify;">IDBI Bank</b><span style="text-align: justify;"> has given the notification for </span><b style="text-align: justify;">Assistant Manager</b><span style="text-align: justify;"> vacancies. Candidates who are interested can apply online and get </span><a href="https://www.idbi.com/index.asp" rel="nofollow" style="text-align: justify;" target="_blank">IDBI Bank</a><span style="text-align: justify;"> Assistant Manager <b>Model Question Paper</b>. And keep checking our page for more exam updates like exam dates. Check the exam pattern for Assistant Manager post given in the section following. Here are a few details regarding the IDBI Bank Assistant Manager recruitment. Check the exam pattern details for Assistant Manager written examination. Having knowledge of model question paper pattern helps a lot in preparation. Hence, go through the details in the section following and know complete details.</span></div>
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<span style="text-align: justify;">Later, download and refer all the IDBI Bank previous year paper pdf. IDBI Bank Assistant Manager exam </span><b style="text-align: justify;">previous year papers</b><span style="text-align: justify;"> pdf free download links are given below. Aspirants who are looking for IDBI Bank Assistant Manager exam model question paper pdf can download here. Just click on the link to download pdf. The paper below is only for reference. Aspirants can make use of these papers for reference and practice purpose. Candidates who are interested can check the official website for IDBI Bank </span><a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2019/04/idbi-bank-assistant-manager-previous-year-question.html" style="text-align: justify;">previous year question papers</a><span style="text-align: justify;"> for Assistant Manager pdf.</span></div>
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<h2 style="text-align: center;">
Model Question of IDBI Bank Assistant Manager</h2>
Directions (Q. 1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.<br />
<div style="text-align: justify;">
Since July 1991, the government of India has effectively put the liberalisation policy into practice. The drastic steps even include some administrative reforms for pruning the government agencies. Last year the Japanese business circles represented by the Ishikawa Mission called attention of their Indian counterparts to what they considered to be the major impediments in India. However, thanks to the almost revolutionary reforms put into effect by the Indian government, those impediments either have been removed or now are on their way out. This development gives a new hope for the future of economic cooperation between the two countries. At the same time, it should be borne in mind that there is a stiff competition with other countries, notably China and South-East Asian countries, in this regard. The success stories of ASEAN countries welcoming Japanese investments with adequate infrastructure are already known in India but it may be useful if further studies of Japanese joint ventures in ASEAN countries be made by Indian business circles. The coastal areas of China have initiated a very active campaign to welcome foreign economic participation. </div>
<div style="text-align: justify;">
Beyond our bilateral relationship, India’s more active participation in global economy is needed. India certainly deserves a far bigger share of world trade considering its vast resources. It is strongly hoped that the Indian government’s recently initiated effort of enlarging its export market would bear fruit.</div>
India has steadfastly maintained its parliamentary democracy since independence. Considering its size, its population and its internal complexity, the overall maintenance of national integrity and political stability under parliamentary democracy is remarkable and admirable indeed. Here lies the base for the status of India in the world. By effectively implementing its economic reform with the support of public opinion, this democratic polity of India has again demonstrated its viability and resilience. At the same time, it gives hope and inspiration to the whole world which faces the difficult problem of North-South confrontation.<br />
<br />
1. The Ishikawa Mission during its visit to India emphasized on<br />
1) future economic co-operation between Japan and India.<br />
2) need for removing policy and/or implementation hurdles.<br />
3) need for a stiff competition.<br />
4) striking down revolutionary reforms.<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
2. How did the Indian government react to the hurdles in the way of bilateral trade between India and Japan?<br />
1) The government, in principle, agreed for removal of these hurdles. <br />
2) Bureaucracy succeeded in maintaining a status quo.<br />
3) Government thought it was against liberalisation policy.<br />
4) The Japanese delegation could not forcefully argue their case.<br />
5) It failed to remove these hurdles.<br />
<br />
3. What is the result of Japanese investments in ASEAN nations?<br />
1) It could not gather momentum for want of infrastructure.<br />
2) The experiment failed because of stiff competition from other countries.<br />
3) China and South-East Asian countries objected to Japanese investments.<br />
4) The passage does not provide complete information.<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
4. Which of the following is TRUE about the author’s view regarding India’s participation in world trade?<br />
1) India should actively contribute in a big way as it had tremendous resources.<br />
2) India’s sharing in global economy has already been very fast and beyond its resources.<br />
3) India should refrain from making efforts in enlarging its export market.<br />
4) India needs to first strengthen its democracy.<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
5. On India’ s implementing liberalisation policy, the author seems to be<br />
1) unreasonably critical<br />
2) sarcastic<br />
3) appreciative<br />
4) unconvinced about its effectiveness<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
6. It can be inferred from the content of the passage that the author is a/an<br />
1) political analyser<br />
2) Japanese bureaucrat<br />
3) Economist<br />
4) Japanese politician<br />
5) Indian Prime Minister<br />
<br />
7. The author seems to appreciate India’s national integrity and political stability particularly in view of which of the following?<br />
A) the size of the country<br />
B) India’s population<br />
C) its internal complexity<br />
1) None of the three<br />
2) All the three<br />
3) A & B only<br />
4) B & C 0nly<br />
5) A & C only<br />
<br />
8. The author feels that India has a better status in the world market because of its<br />
1) success in political stability and national integration in democratic set-up;<br />
2) vast population<br />
3) giant size.<br />
4) effective bilateral relationship with other countries<br />
5) foreign economic participation.<br />
<br />
9. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?<br />
A) India’ s successful experiment of economic reform has become an inspiration to the world.<br />
B) Size, population and internal complexity of our country are the barriers in the way of attaining national integrity and political stability.<br />
C) A few government agencies were not in favour of liberalisation policy at the beginning.<br />
1) A only<br />
2) B only<br />
3) C only<br />
4) All the three <br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 10-12): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.<br />
10. steadfastly<br />
1) quickly<br />
2) violently<br />
3) adversely<br />
4) religiously<br />
5) faithfully<br />
<br />
11. resilience<br />
1) quietening<br />
2) amplifying<br />
3) existence<br />
4) adaptability<br />
5) rejuvenation<br />
<br />
12. pruning<br />
1) activating<br />
2) trimming <br />
3) punishing<br />
4) encouraging<br />
5) empowering<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 13-15): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.<br />
13. stiff<br />
1) stubborn<br />
2) indelible<br />
3) tense<br />
4) yielding<br />
5) soapy<br />
<br />
14. vast<br />
1) minute<br />
2) meager<br />
3) minor<br />
4) innumerable <br />
5) intangible<br />
<br />
15. impediments<br />
1) exaggeration<br />
2) compendium<br />
3) obstacle<br />
4) aggravation<br />
5) furtherance<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 16-20): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.<br />
<br />
A) They collected plants, counted birds and photographed the terrain and the fauna and made their recommendations.<br />
B) In spring of 1963, an alamied King Hussain invited a group of British scholars, scientists and naturalists.<br />
C) He also wanted them to cover the deserts to the east of the mountains.<br />
D) He wanted them to conduct an extensive survey, of the mountains on the eastern side of the Dead Sea.<br />
E) The problem of conservation of forests and forest birds and nature in general was thus set rolling.<br />
F) Accordingly, an expedition of internationally known experts in conservation, botany, ornithology, etc. went to Jordan.<br />
<br />
16. Which of the following should be the FIFTH in the paragraph?<br />
1) A<br />
2) B<br />
3) C<br />
4) D<br />
5) E<br />
17. Which of the following should be the FIRST in the paragraph?<br />
1) A<br />
2) B<br />
3) C<br />
4) D<br />
5) E<br />
<br />
18. Which of the following should be the LAST in the paragraph?<br />
1) A<br />
2) B<br />
3) C<br />
4) D<br />
5) E<br />
<br />
19. Which of the following should be the SECOND in the paragraph?<br />
1) F<br />
2) E<br />
3) D<br />
4) C<br />
5) B<br />
<br />
20. Which of the following should be the FOURTH in the paragraph?<br />
1) F<br />
2) E<br />
3) D<br />
4) C<br />
5) B<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 21-25): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.<br />
<br />
21. None knows exactly __ or the wheel itself was first used.<br />
1) what, where<br />
2) what, when<br />
3) what, why<br />
4) who, when <br />
5) when, how<br />
<br />
22. Ultimately, he received the __ he __.<br />
1) gains, demanded<br />
2) honour, deserved<br />
3) care, wanted <br />
4) credit, contributed<br />
5) denial, escaped<br />
<br />
23. We were highly ___ with the ____ and hospitable treatment given by the host.<br />
1) impressed, friendly<br />
2) shocked, unpleasant<br />
3) amazed, hostile<br />
4) discouraged, cordial<br />
5) thrilled, pathetic<br />
<br />
24. The success in any business does not occur ____ but only ___ many years of study and training.<br />
1) leisurely, for<br />
2) frequently, with<br />
3) automatically, after<br />
4) traditionally, by<br />
5) temporarily, despite<br />
<br />
25. The announcement coincided with __ of military action __ the rival.<br />
1) felicitation, for<br />
2) signals, with<br />
3) notice, of <br />
4) threats, against<br />
5) warning, favouring<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 26-35): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5) i.e. ‘No correction required’ as the answer.<br />
<br />
26. It is the temple where religious rites are celebrated <b>as they were for</b> centuries.<br />
1) as they have been for<br />
2) so were they for<br />
3) as they are for<br />
4) as they were before<br />
5) No correction required<br />
<br />
27. By the time he had won his commission, the senior officer <b>had to start seeking</b> employment elsewhere.<br />
1) had started seeking<br />
2) were started seeking<br />
3) had been started to seek<br />
4) were to have started seeking<br />
5) No correction required<br />
<br />
28. The congestion on the streets must <b>be seen to believe</b>.<br />
1) have been to believe<br />
2) have been seen for believing<br />
3) have seen for belief<br />
4) be seen to be believed<br />
5) No correction required<br />
<br />
29. He had begun to develop the qualities that he <b>was going to</b> need in later years.<br />
1) was going to be needed<br />
2) had gone to need<br />
3) was later to need<br />
4) had been gone to need<br />
5) No correction required<br />
<br />
30. All <b>round is emptiness and silence</b>, the silence, it seems, of a land that man has not yet set foot upon.<br />
1) around is emptiness and silence<br />
2) round is empty and silent<br />
3) round are emptiness and silence<br />
4) around are empty and silence<br />
5) No correction required<br />
<br />
31. He was quite sure that none of them <b>were aware</b> of the truth.<br />
1) were aware from<br />
2) was aware of<br />
3) were beware of<br />
4) had aware of<br />
5) No correction required<br />
<br />
32. I was <b>too overwhelmed</b> to make any decision.<br />
1) too much overwhelm to<br />
2) so overwhelmed to<br />
3) extremely overwhelmed about<br />
4) quite overwhelming to <br />
5) No correction required<br />
<br />
33. <b>Shocked of finding</b> an unknown person, the army officer briskly caught hold of him.<br />
1) Shockingly found<br />
2) Shocked at finding<br />
3) Shocked by finding<br />
4) Finding as a shock<br />
5) No correction required<br />
<br />
34. No sooner did he reach the station than the train <b>had started moving</b>.<br />
1) had started movement<br />
2) had been moving<br />
3) had been started movement<br />
4) started moving <br />
5) No correction required<br />
<br />
35. He <b>has even venturing</b> into areas which he had shunned.<br />
1) had even venturing into<br />
2) even is being venture into<br />
3) has even been venturing into<br />
4) has even been ventured in<br />
5) No correction required<br />
<br />
Directions (Q. 36-40): In each of the following questions five phrases denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) are given. By using all the five phrases, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of the phrases is your answer.<br />
Choose from the five alternatives the one having the correct order of the phrases and mark it as your answer.<br />
36. A) The case goes to highlight<br />
B) Ruin the honour and prestige<br />
C) How rogue bureaucrats can <br />
D) Of a citizen<br />
E) On the slightest of pretext<br />
1) ACBDE<br />
2) CDABE<br />
3) BEDCA<br />
4) DCAEB<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
37. A) On the pull-out deadline<br />
B) Any intruder spotted on its territory beyond Friday<br />
C) Refusing to entertain the enemy request<br />
D) India reiterated that <br />
E) Would be forcibly evicted<br />
1) ACDBE<br />
2) BADCE <br />
3) CADBE<br />
4) ADCBE <br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
38. A) Nasty way and<br />
B) Quite miserable<br />
C) It is difficult to understand<br />
D) Why people behave in such a<br />
E) Make the life of everyone<br />
1) AEBDC<br />
2) DCAEB<br />
3) EBADC<br />
4) DACEB<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
39. A) Everyone had left office premises<br />
B) The smoke formed a dense screen<br />
C) Anything about the missing file as<br />
D) As soon as the fire broke and<br />
E) Nobody could say<br />
1) CEDBA<br />
2) AEBCD<br />
3) BECDA<br />
4) DCAEB<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
40. A) He found the ring<br />
B) His statement that <br />
C) Everyone knows he is a liar<br />
D) Cannot be trusted because <br />
E) Inside the wallet<br />
1) CDAEB<br />
2) BACDE<br />
3) DCBAE<br />
4) BAEDC<br />
5) None of these<br />
<br />
<div style="text-align: justify;">
Directions (Q. 41-50): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.</div>
<div style="text-align: justify;">
<br /></div>
We should retain our own --------------- (41) ------------------ We must retain the great visions of this country and we should treat the Japanese as friend but ----------- (42) -------------- in terms of business and not in importing their ----------- (43) --------------. I am totally -------------- (44) ----------- to the statement of some of our country’s businessmen that the Japanese way of doing business is the only right way of doing business. The Japanese ---------- (45) ------------ one language, the same mode of dressing, the same kind of behaviour, the same kind of religion. On the other hand, we are ---------- (46) ---------- individuals. So how could we function as Japanese who function totally in ------------- (47) ------------? <br />
We have to ------------ (48) --------------- the Gandhian path of austerity and self-denial for the common good of the society. While retaining individual excellence and freedom we have to find a way of -------------- (49) -------------- them towards a common goal. ------------- (50) ------------ becoming clones of either Japanese model or Western model will only make us copycats and pygmies and never giants.<br />
<br />
41. 1) potential 2) business 3) profit 4) capability 5) individuality<br />
42. 1) frequently 2) purely 3) visibly 4) never 5) seldom<br />
43. 1) ills 2) endeavours 3) whims 4) culture 5) goods<br />
44. 1) indifferent 2) sympathetic 3) opposed 4) agreeable 5) confronting<br />
45. 1) have 2) read 3) converse 4) speak 5) write<br />
46. 1) social 2) democratic 3) philanthropic 4) mature 5) diverse<br />
47. 1) self 2) unison 3) extremity 4) isolation 5) collusion<br />
48. 1) change 2) utilise 3) irrationalise 4) follow 5) forsake<br />
49. 1) exporting 2) delivering 3) channelizing 4) fixing 5) transporting<br />
50. 1) Merely 2) Solely 3) Enthusiastically 4) Occasionally 5) Totally<br />
<br />
<br />
<h3 style="text-align: center;">
<u>Answer Sheet</u></h3>
<table border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"><tbody>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="71">1</td> <td valign="top" width="71">2</td> <td valign="top" width="72">3</td> <td valign="top" width="72">4</td> <td valign="top" width="72">5</td> <td valign="top" width="72">6</td> <td valign="top" width="72">7</td> <td valign="top" width="72">8</td> <td valign="top" width="72">9</td> <td valign="top" width="72">10</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="71">2</td> <td valign="top" width="71">1</td> <td valign="top" width="72">4</td> <td valign="top" width="72">1</td> <td valign="top" width="72">3</td> <td valign="top" width="72">3</td> <td valign="top" width="72">2</td> <td valign="top" width="72">1</td> <td valign="top" width="72">1</td> <td valign="top" width="72">5</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="71">11</td> <td valign="top" width="71">12</td> <td valign="top" width="72">13</td> <td valign="top" width="72">14</td> <td valign="top" width="72">15</td> <td valign="top" width="72">16</td> <td valign="top" width="72">17</td> <td valign="top" width="72">18</td> <td valign="top" width="72">19</td> <td valign="top" width="72">20</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="71">4</td> <td valign="top" width="71">2</td> <td valign="top" width="72">4</td> <td valign="top" width="72">2</td> <td valign="top" width="72">5</td> <td valign="top" width="72">1</td> <td valign="top" width="72">2</td> <td valign="top" width="72">5</td> <td valign="top" width="72">3</td> <td valign="top" width="72">1</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="71">21</td> <td valign="top" width="71">22</td> <td valign="top" width="72">23</td> <td valign="top" width="72">24</td> <td valign="top" width="72">25</td> <td valign="top" width="72">26</td> <td valign="top" width="72">27</td> <td valign="top" width="72">28</td> <td valign="top" width="72">29</td> <td valign="top" width="72">30</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="71">5</td> <td valign="top" width="71">2</td> <td valign="top" width="72">1</td> <td valign="top" width="72">3</td> <td valign="top" width="72">4</td> <td valign="top" width="72">1</td> <td valign="top" width="72">1</td> <td valign="top" width="72">4</td> <td valign="top" width="72">5</td> <td valign="top" width="72">1</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="71">31</td> <td valign="top" width="71">32</td> <td valign="top" width="72">33</td> <td valign="top" width="72">34</td> <td valign="top" width="72">35</td> <td valign="top" width="72">36</td> <td valign="top" width="72">37</td> <td valign="top" width="72">38</td> <td valign="top" width="72">39</td> <td valign="top" width="72">40</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="71">2</td> <td valign="top" width="71">5</td> <td valign="top" width="72">2</td> <td valign="top" width="72">4</td> <td valign="top" width="72">3</td> <td valign="top" width="72">1</td> <td valign="top" width="72">3</td> <td valign="top" width="72">5</td> <td valign="top" width="72">5</td> <td valign="top" width="72">4</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="71">41</td> <td valign="top" width="71">42</td> <td valign="top" width="72">43</td> <td valign="top" width="72">44</td> <td valign="top" width="72">45</td> <td valign="top" width="72">46</td> <td valign="top" width="72">47</td> <td valign="top" width="72">48</td> <td valign="top" width="72">49</td> <td valign="top" width="72">50</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="71">5</td> <td valign="top" width="71">2</td> <td valign="top" width="72">4</td> <td valign="top" width="72">3</td> <td valign="top" width="72">1</td> <td valign="top" width="72">5</td> <td valign="top" width="72">2</td> <td valign="top" width="72">4</td> <td valign="top" width="72">3</td> <td valign="top" width="72">1</td> </tr>
</tbody></table>
<table bgcolor="#FFFFCC" border="1" cellspacing="9">
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Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-79767732196001620682021-08-09T14:14:00.000+05:302021-08-09T14:14:48.963+05:30IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Old Question Papers | Aptitude<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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<b>IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Old Question Paper</b> is given on our page. We advise checking all the Sample Papers and Study material given on our page. This helps the applicants in getting an idea of how the question paper is going to be. Also, helps in time management during the examination. Check the Syllabus and Exam Pattern details for Assistant Manager in the section following. </div>
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We advise referring the exam pattern before downloading the IDBI Bank Question Paper with Answers Pdf. Candidates who are looking for the <a href="https://www.idbi.com/index.asp" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">IDBI Bank</a> Assistant Manager <b>Old Question Paper</b> can get in this section. Aspirants just need to click on the links given in the tabular columns below and download free pdf. Also, find the sample study material given below. </div>
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IDBI Bank Previous Papers helps the applicants during the preparation. We have given the direct link for IDBI Bank exam study material in the section below. Hence, check the details given and download the material given and start your <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2019/04/idbi-bank-assistant-manager-sample-question.html">preparation</a> today.</div>
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IDBI Bank Assistant Manager Previous Year Question</h2>
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Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-61364844567731779762021-07-22T22:58:00.001+05:302021-07-22T23:01:50.332+05:30The Nainital Bank Question Papers<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: justify;"><b>Nainital Bank</b> is going to conduct the online computer based written test and skill test for Management Trainees post. As a part of the selection process applicants needs to attend the written examination. However, here are the details regarding the exam pattern for Clerk. </div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><img alt="The Nainital Bank Question Papers" border="0" data-original-height="119" data-original-width="119" height="400" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjRoM87kZtc9iT9sffWmy-_3ZfSC5VGzknKxpzNEHLctnAHiMBfqtZ_KT9oO0rdDMqsyGHGL1R6_5oUWHUuZ-Mh_J-YF80ln8Vsz4iAzM_u2CGXMBxfZ6dkwVkT9AL_Ibuue4gIqwRhzW-8/w400-h400/nainital-bank-question-papers.png" title="The Nainital Bank Question Papers" width="400" /></div><br /><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: justify;"><br /></div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: justify;">The Nainital Bank Management Trainees Question Paper in Pdf is given in this section. Aspirants can download the pdf just by clicking on the links. The model paper given on our page is only for reference purpose. </div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: justify;">Hence, refer all the exam model question paper given in the tabular column below before the exam date. Nainital Bank Previous Papers for Management Trainees is given on our page are free to download. </div><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: justify;">Hence, candidates can get the pdf just by clicking on the direct links given on our page. However, before going to Model Paper section here are some of the details regarding the recruitment and written examination.</div><span><a name='more'></a></span><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: justify;"><br /></div>
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Here are certain direct links are given to download the Nainital Bank Clerk Sample Papers to help the participants who are in preparation for their exams. Hence download the Nainital Bank Management Trainees Previous Year Question Paper subject wise and practice by solving the questions. <div>Use these previous year question paper of Nainital Bank Clerk as a reference for your preparation. Don’t waste your time in searching for Management Trainees Solved Question Papers here & there. Because here we already did that thing for you and provided the Best Materials for Nainital Bank Clerk Exam.</div><div>Just click on the relevant link to get the Nainital Bank Clerk Previous Year Question Papers. Everything is possible with perfect preparation and practice. So, applicants can begin the preparation for Nainital Bank. We are here to help seriously intended candidates of Management Trainees Jobs. </div><div>Therefore providing the Nainital Bank Clerk Previous Year Question Paper for free of cost.
The Nainital Bank applicants need to attend the Written Test, which will organize by the Nainital Bank. The Nainital Bank Recruitment includes Written Test followed may be by the Interview. </div><div>So, the applicants need to prepare well for showing better performance in the Nainital Bank Clerk Written Exam. Before attending the Nainital Bank Exam, it is better to know the Nainital Bank Syllabus & Exam Pattern and once have a look at the Nainital Bank Clerk Exam Sample Papers. </div><div>For the sake of those sincerely preparing aspirants here is given the Nainital Bank Clerk Model Papers. We are reducing the time to search the Nainital Bank Clerk Practice papers by providing the download links for each of all subjects. </div><div> Nainital Bank Management Trainees previous year question papers help the aspirants in the preparation. Previous papers give an overview of the exam paper and the way questions are going to be. However, aspirants who are going to appear for examinations can get the previous papers pdf for free. Also, check the exam pattern and syllabus details before going to the Nainital Bank Clerk question papers. Nainital Bank Clerk exam model question paper are here. </div><div>Also, we provided a study material for Management Trainees exams to help the applicants in their preparation. Hence, check all the related details like exam pattern and exam dates given. Aspirants can find the respective download links for Nainital Bank Management Trainees Previous Papers Pdf. </div><div>check the latest Nainital Bank recruitment details on our page. Here is the overview of notifications. Complete exam pattern details for written examinations are given below. </div><div>Find the subjects need to cover to crack the examinations in our Nainital Bank Clerk Syllabus page. Later, download the previous year Paper given below and start your preparation.
</div>Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-76576496592889862362021-06-05T01:31:00.000+05:302021-06-05T01:31:02.222+05:30SBI SO Law Officers Old Question Papers Solved Download PDF<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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SBI SO Law Officers <b>Old Question</b> - The SBI Previous Papers will contain the Objective type questions from various disciplines. SBI Law Specialist Officers Previous Years Papers is the most important materials for exam preparation. Aspirants can refer the State Bank of India Law Specialist Officers Exam Old Papers to get an idea about the Test structure, subjects, scheme of examination. </div>
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The State Bank of India Previous Papers links are enclosed at the bottom of this page. On this page, you will also check the Syllabus & Exam Pattern of Law Specialist Officers full recruitment details such as Admit Cards release date, SBI SO Law Exam Dates, and so on. We will update more previous papers of State Bank of India Recruitment Exams soon. Until then, the candidates can use the enclosed papers as a reference for the <b>Written Test</b> preparation. The SBI has given the <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2020/03/sbi-so-law-officers-sample-question.html">Exam</a> Syllabus on its official site. The applied candidates can check the State Bank of India Syllabus & Exam Pattern of Jobs recruitment tests from the enclosed link. Here, we are providing a brief info on the syllabus.</div>
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<a name='more'></a><br />
1. Punishment for violation of privacy is given in:<br />
(a) Sec. 66A of the Information Technology Act<br />
(b) Sec. 66B of the Information Technology Act<br />
(c) Sec. 66D of the Information Technology Act<br />
(d) Sec. 66E of the Information Technology Act<br />
<br />
2. Which of the following is not considered good practise for password security?<br />
(a) Changing the password on a regular basis<br />
(b) Using a combination of upper and lower-case characters, a number, and a special character in the password<br />
(c) Use the same password for more than one account<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
3. When someone forcefully takes control of a website (by cracking the password and later changing it, it is called:<br />
(a) Web Jacking<br />
(b) Logic bombs<br />
(c) Cyber terrorism<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
4. To protect e-mail, which of the following activity/activities is/are necessary?<br />
(a) Do not open untrusted/unknown emails (spam)<br />
(b) Do not keep your computer unattended to avoid misuse<br />
(c) Always lock/shutdown the computer when not in use<br />
(d) All of these<br />
<br />
5. Spoofing means:<br />
(a) Capable of sending data by attacker with the illusion that it is coming from a different source.<br />
(b) Changing the password on a regular basis<br />
(c) Using a combination of upper and lower-case characters, a number, and a special character in the password<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
6. National Cyber Security Policy has been issued in:<br />
(a) 2011<br />
(b) 2012<br />
(c) 2013<br />
(d) 2014<br />
<br />
7. If a person denies access to an authorised personnel to a computer resource, accesses a protected system or introduces contaminant into a system, with the intention of threatening the unity, integrity, sovereignty or security of India, then he commits cyber terrorism. For this act he can be penalised for:<br />
(a) life imprisonment<br />
(b) ten years imprisonment<br />
(c) fifteen years imprisonment<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
8. How many Schedules are there in Information Technology Act, 2000?<br />
(a) One<br />
(b) Two<br />
(c) Three<br />
(d) Four<br />
<br />
9. Which Section of Information Technology Act, 2000, grants powers to the Central Government to issue directions for blocking of public access to any information through any computer resource?<br />
(a) Section 69<br />
(b) Section 69A<br />
(c) Section 70 <br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
10. Gaining of unauthorized access to data stored in a computer system is called<br />
(a) Defacement<br />
(b) Phising<br />
(c) Hacking<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
11. What is the limitation period in a suit by a landlord to recover possession from a tenant after the date the tenancy is determined?<br />
(a) One year<br />
(b) Two years<br />
(c) Six years<br />
(d) Twelve years<br />
<br />
12. The object of the Limitation Act is to:<br />
(a) Prevent disturbance or deprivation of what may have been acquired in equity and justice by long enjoyment<br />
(b) Prevent disturbance of what have been lost by party’s own inaction, negligence or laches<br />
(c) Both (a) & (b)<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
13. In computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal or application, the day from which such period is to be reckoned<br />
(a) shall be excluded<br />
(b) shall be included<br />
(c) both (a) & (b) <br />
(d) none of these<br />
<br />
14. Acquisition of easement by prescription takes place:<br />
(a) Where the access and use of light or air to and for any building have been peaceably enjoyed therewith as an easement, and as of right, without interruption, and for twenty years<br />
(b) Where the access and use of light or air to and for any building have been peaceably enjoyed therewith as an easement, and as of right, without interruption, and for twenty five years,<br />
(c) Where the access and use of light or air to and for any building have been peaceably enjoyed therewith as an easement, and as of right, without interruption, and for thirty years<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
15. Limitation Act, 1983 does not apply to:<br />
(a) Suit<br />
(b) Appeal<br />
(c) Certain applications including petition<br />
(d) Writ petition<br />
<br />
16. Provision of legal disability has been mentioned under______of the Limitation Act, 1963.<br />
(a) Section 5<br />
(b) Section 6<br />
(c) Section 7 <br />
(d) Section 8<br />
<br />
17. Limitation runs from the<br />
(a) Date the plaint is returned<br />
(b) Date of the order by which plaint is directed to be returned<br />
(c) Depends<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
18. Section 17 of the Limitation Act deals with:<br />
(a) Fraud<br />
(b) Mistake<br />
(c) Concealment <br />
(d) All of these<br />
<br />
19. Where the writing containing the acknowledgement is undated:<br />
(a) Oral evidence may be given of the time when it was signed<br />
(b) Oral evidence may be given of its contents<br />
(c) Both (a) & (b)<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
20. The period of limitation for setting aside a sale on execution of decree is :<br />
(a) 120 days<br />
(b) 90 days<br />
(c) 60 days <br />
(d) 30 days</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-53426652250637056512021-05-19T21:25:00.000+05:302021-05-19T21:25:56.596+05:30IBPS SO Law Officers Objective MCQs Quiz Questions Answers PDF<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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<b>IBPS SO</b> Law Officers Objective MCQs Quiz Questions - Aspirants can find the IBPS Law Specialist Officers Previous Year Question Paper with answers here. The direct links to download the pdf are given in the tabular section below. </div>
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Candidates just need to click on the links and download the Pdf for free. Hope our material will help you in your preparation. For more details visit the official Institute of Banking Personnel Selection page. IBPS SO Law Question Paper for Both prelims and Mains Examination are available here. The Candidate who is appearing for IBPS Law Specialist Officers can download the Previous Paper from the link given. Also, refer the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Law <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2020/03/ibps-so-law-officers-previous-question.html">Specialist Officers</a> Exam Syllabus and Test Patter from the link given. </div>
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Applicants can download the Syllabus Pdf for free of cost from the link. However, hope our material will help you in your preparation. Furthermore, check the Updated IBPS Law Specialist Officers Syllabus from the link below. Also, download the IBPS SO Law <b>Syllabus</b> Pdf. However, check the IBPS SO Law Syllabus section wise and Exam Pattern here. Hope our material helps you in your preparation, keep visiting.</div>
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<br />
1. Section 8 of the PC Acts is rightly corresponding to which section of IPC?<br />
(a) Section 161<br />
(b) Section 162<br />
(c) Section 163 <br />
(d) Section 165A<br />
<br />
2. The word ‘gratification’ by the PC Acts 1988 is<br />
(a) Restricted to pecuniary gratification only<br />
(b) Is not restricted to pecuniary gratification<br />
(c) Is restricted to pecuniary gratification only which may be estimated in terms of money<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
3. Law Commission of India has presented a report relating to the proposed amendments to the Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Bill 2013. The said report is<br />
(a) 252nd Law Commission of India Report<br />
(b) 253rd Law Commission of India Report<br />
(c) 254th Law Commission of India Report <br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
4. Law Commission of India 254th Report relates to:<br />
(a) Widening the power of Central Government to cover Private corporate bodies within the term public servant<br />
(b) The proposed amendment to the Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Bill 2013<br />
(c) To curb the power of Central Vigilance Commission<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
5. Which of the following chapter of IPC relates to offence by or relating to Public Servants?<br />
(a) Chapter VII<br />
(b) Chapter VIII<br />
(c) Chapter IX<br />
(d) Chapter X<br />
<br />
6. Which of the following Section of this Act deals with the formulation of the guidelines by the State Government<br />
(a) Section 40<br />
(b) Section 38<br />
(c) Section 39<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
7. Under Section 44 of the Act which of the following organ has been mandated to implement the provision of the Act in addition to its assigned function<br />
(a) National Human Rights Commission<br />
(b) Nation Commission for Women<br />
(c) Nation Commission for Protection of Child Rights<br />
(d) All of these<br />
<br />
8. Which of the following is not true<br />
(a) The Act intends to protect the child through all stage of Judicial process and give paramount importance to the principle of best interest of the child<br />
(b) Using a child for pornographic purposes is outside the scope of this Act<br />
(c) This Act envisages punishing even abetment or an attempt to commit the offences defined in the Act<br />
(d) It is now mandatory for police to register an FIR in all cases of Child Abuse<br />
<br />
9. The Notification of POSCO Act took place on:<br />
(a) 12th June, 2012<br />
(b) 15th June, 2012<br />
(c) 20th June, 2012<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
10. The Act has defined different form of sexual abuse covering<br />
(a) Penetrative assault and sexual harassment<br />
(b) Penetrative assault, sexual harassment and pornography<br />
(c) Non penetrative assault, sexual harassment but not pornography<br />
(d) Penetrative and non penetrative assault, sexual harassment and pornography<br />
<br />
11. Which section of the POCSO Act deals with Medical Examination provisions<br />
(a) Section 39 <br />
(b) Section 44<br />
(c) Section 26<br />
(d) Section 27<br />
<br />
12. Which section of the Cr.P.C relates to the provision of Emergency Medical Care under the POCSO Act and Rules<br />
(a) S. 257 of Cr.P.C, 1973<br />
(b) S. 357 of Cr.P.C, 1973<br />
(c) S. 357C of Cr.P.C, 1973<br />
(d) S. 358 of Cr.P.C, 1973<br />
<br />
13. ICPS stands for<br />
(a) Integrated Child Protection Scheme <br />
(b) International Child Protection Scheme<br />
(c) Integrated Child Protection Standard <br />
(d) Integrated Child Precaution Standard<br />
<br />
14. Section 61 of Juvenile Justice Act is relevant for the POCSO Act because<br />
(a) Nation Commission for Protection of Child Rights is constituted under the Act originates from J.J.Act<br />
(b) The Act has defined different form of sexual abuse covering<br />
(c) Counselors engaged externally may be remunerated from the Fund constituted by the State Government under this Act.<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
15. An FIR in respect of any offence committed against a Child under this Act is filed under which of the following provision<br />
(a) Section 19(6) of the POCSO Act, 2012<br />
(b) Section 40<br />
(c) Section 44 <br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
16. Section 3 of the Act deals with<br />
(a) Penetrative Sexual Assault<br />
(b) Sexual Assault<br />
(c) Aggravated Sexual Assault<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
17. Which of the following punishment is provided for penetrative sexual assault under section 4 of the Act, 2012<br />
(a) Not less than three years of imprisonment which may extend to five years and fine<br />
(b) Not less than five years of imprisonment which may extend to seven years and fine<br />
(c) Not less than seven years of imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life and fine<br />
(d) Three years of imprisonment and fine<br />
<br />
18. Which of the following is/are the designated authority to monitor the implementation of the Act?<br />
(a) The National Commission for the Protection of Child Right (NCPCR)<br />
(b) The State Commissions for the Protection of Child Rights (SCPCRs)<br />
(c) Both (a) and (b)<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
19. Maximum penalty prescribed under the POCSO Act, 2012 is:<br />
(a) Death penalty<br />
(b) Life imprisonment<br />
(c) Imprisonment of 10 years<br />
(d) Imprisonment of 7 years<br />
<br />
20. Who among the following perform the role of an intermediary between the authorities and the Child abused under the Act?<br />
(a) The trust person<br />
(b) The counselor<br />
(c) The support person <br />
(d) None of these</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-35421024815291347992021-05-19T21:24:00.000+05:302021-05-19T21:24:55.649+05:30SBI SO Law Officers Previous Question Papers Solved Download PDF<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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<b>SBI SO Law Officers Previous Question</b> - The SBI Law Specialist Officers Previous Year Question Paper available. Many of the candidates had applied for the SO Law. For such candidates, we have provided the SBI SO Law Question Paper with Answer pdf to prepare better for the exam and have a career on this board. </div>
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Furthermore, the contenders can also find and download the SBI Law Specialist Officers Question Paper as well as SBI Law Specialist Officers Question Paper from the link given below in the post. Exams will be conducted online by the authority. Hence, start to download the SBI Law Specialist Officers Syllabus from now itself, do not delay it. Furthermore, in the following link, we have updated the complete State Bank of India SO Law Syllabus along with the exam pattern. Most importantly, aspirants have to understand the exam pattern. Start your preparations by solving the SBI SO Law Previous Year Question Papers so that you can do well on your exams. The applicants applied for the SBI Law Specialist Officers have to undergo the following recruitment process; SBI releases the vacancies Law Specialist Officers vacancies every year. A huge number of job seekers will be applying for the posts. However, there will be a huge competition between the contenders every year. If you are one who applied for SBI SO Law then download the previous year <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2020/03/sbi-so-law-officers-old-question.html">question</a> paper.</div>
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1. Section 27 of the Limitation Act:<br />
(a) bars remedy<br />
(b) extinguishes the rights<br />
(c) both (a) & (b)<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
2. Acknowledgement after the period of limitation:<br />
(a) is of no effect<br />
(b) Gives rise to an independent and enforceable contract<br />
(c) Both (a) & (b)<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
3. Condonation of delay under section 5 is<br />
(a) Mandatory<br />
(b) Discretionary<br />
(c) Depends <br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
4. Section 6 of the Limitation Act, does not apply to:<br />
(a) Insolvent<br />
(b) Minor<br />
(c) Insane <br />
(d) idiot<br />
<br />
5. Limitation Act is:<br />
(a) prospective in operation<br />
(b) retrospective in operation<br />
(c) prospective as well as retrospective in operation, depending on the facts and circumstances of each case<br />
(d) prospective as well as retrospective in operation, as per the discretion of the court<br />
<br />
6. The period of limitation for filing a revision is<br />
(a) 180 days<br />
(b) 90 days<br />
(c) 60 days<br />
(d) 30 days<br />
<br />
7. Can the period spent in prosecuting the case before the Consumer forum be excluded from the limitation period?<br />
(a) Yes<br />
(b) No<br />
(c) Partly excluded <br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
8. What is the limitation period regarding filing of a suit for arrears of maintenance?<br />
(a) one year<br />
(b) two years<br />
(c) one to three years<br />
(d) three years<br />
<br />
9. Limitation Act is:<br />
(a) lex loci<br />
(b) lex fori<br />
(c) non-obstante <br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
10. Before the enforcement of Limitation Act of 1963 which law was governing the Limitation provisions?<br />
(a) The Limitation Act of 1859<br />
(b) The Indian Limitation Act, 1871<br />
(c) The Indian Limitation Act, 1908 <br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
11. The Central Civil Services (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules, 1965 came into force on:<br />
(a) 1st July, 1965<br />
(b) 1st August, 1965<br />
(c) 1st September, 1965 <br />
(d) 1st December, 1965<br />
<br />
12. Under the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules, 1965 "Government servant” means a person who:<br />
(a) is a member of a Service or holds a civil post under the Union, and includes any such person on foreign service or whose services are temporarily placed at the disposal of a State Government, or a local or other authority<br />
(b) is a member of a Service or holds a civil post under a State Government and whose services are temporarily placed at the disposal of the Central Government<br />
(c) is in the service of a local or other authority and whose services are temporarily placed at the disposal of the Central Government<br />
(d) All of these<br />
<br />
13. The Civil Services of the Union has been Classified in-<br />
(a) Two groups<br />
(b) Three groups<br />
(c) Four groups<br />
(d) Five groups<br />
<br />
14. Where a penalty of dismissal, removal or compulsory retirement from service imposed upon a Government servant under suspension is set aside in appeal or on review under Central Civil Services (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules, 1965 and the case is remitted for further inquiry or action or with any other directions:<br />
(a) the order of his suspension shall be deemed to have continued in force on and from the date of the original order of dismissal, removal or compulsory retirement and shall remain in force until further orders.<br />
(b) the order of his suspension shall be deemed to have removed from the date of the original order of dismissal, removal or compulsory retirement and shall remain in force until further orders.<br />
(c) the order of his suspension shall be deemed to have removed from the date of the Suspension and shall remain in force until further orders.<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
15. Which among the following is not a minor penalty under the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules, 1965?<br />
(a) Censure<br />
(b) Withholding of his promotion<br />
(c) Reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale of pay by one stage for a period not exceeding<br />
(d) three years, without cumulative effect and not adversely affecting his pension<br />
(e) Compulsory retirement.<br />
<br />
16. Which among the following is not a penalty under the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules, 1965?<br />
(a) withholding of increments of a Government servant for his failure to pass any departmental examination in accordance with the rules or orders governing the Service to which he belongs or post which he holds or the terms of his appointment;<br />
(b) reversion to a lower stage in the time-scale of pay for a specified period, with further directions as to whether or not the Government servant will earn increments of pay during the period of such reduction and whether on the expiry of such period, the reduction will or will not have the effect of postponing the future increments of his pay <br />
(c) removal from service which shall not be a disqualification for future employment under the Government<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
17. When a minor penalty is being imposed against any Government servant it shall be done after consulting the Commission where such consultation is necessary. The Disciplinary Authority shall forward or cause to be forwarded a copy of the advice of the Commission to the Government servant, who shall be required to submit, if he so desires, his written representation or submission on the advice of the Commission, to the Disciplinary Authority within fifteen days. This provision took place through:<br />
(a) Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) (Second Amendment) Rules, 2014<br />
(b) Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) (Second Amendment) Rules, 2010<br />
(c) Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) (Second Amendment) Rules, 2011<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
18. Which among the following is not correct?<br />
(a) No appeal shall lie against any order made by the President.<br />
(b) No appeal shall lie against any order made by any order of an interlocutory nature.<br />
(c) No appeal shall lie against any order made by any order passed by an inquiring authority in the course of an inquiry under Rule 14.<br />
(d) No appeal shall lie against any order made by the Commission<br />
<br />
19. What is the limitation period of appeal under the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules, 1965?<br />
(a) Such appeal is preferred within a period of thirty days from the date on which a copy of the order appealed against is delivered to the appellant.<br />
(b) Such appeal is preferred within a period of forty days from the date on which a copy of the order appealed against is delivered to the appellant.<br />
(c) Such appeal is preferred within a period of forty-five days from the date on which a copy of the order appealed against is delivered to the appellant.<br />
(d) There is no such limitation for the appeal.<br />
<br />
20. Provision of Revision has been mentioned under __________of the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules, 1965<br />
(a) Rule 28 <br />
(b) Rule 29<br />
(c) Rule 29A<br />
(d) Rule 30<br />
<br />
21. Which among the following is/are not considered as penalty/penalties?<br />
(a) Withholding of increment for failure to pass exams<br />
(b) Non-promotion after consideration of the case by DPC<br />
(c) Reversion of a government servant appointed on probation<br />
(d) All of these<br />
<br />
22. When can a day be marked as dies-non under the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules, 1965?<br />
(a) Absence without proper permission.<br />
(b) When on duty left without proper permission.<br />
(c) While in office refused to perform duties<br />
(d) All of these<br />
<br />
23. After the conclusion of inquiry, a report shall be prepared which shall contain:<br />
(a) Articles of charge and the statement of the imputations of misconduct or misbehavior.<br />
(b) The defence of the government servant in respect of each article of charge.<br />
(c) An assessment of evidence in respect of each article of charge.<br />
(d) All of these.<br />
<br />
24. Under the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules, 1965 the deemed suspension means:<br />
(a) Government servant under custody for more than 48 hours for criminal or other charge.<br />
(b) From the date of conviction if he is sentenced to a term of imprisonment for more than 48 hrs.<br />
(c) Both (a) & (b) are correct<br />
(d) None of the above are correct<br />
<br />
25. Under the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules, 1965 power of review is vested with:<br />
(a) President<br />
(b) CAG<br />
(c) Supreme Court of India<br />
(d) None of these</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-76281275495934319362021-04-14T11:40:00.000+05:302021-04-14T11:40:29.139+05:30Bank of Maharashtra Reasoning Question Papers<p><br /> Aspirants who are going to write the <b>Bank Of Maharashtra Generalist Officer</b> Written Examination might have started their preparation. So, we have provided Bank Of Maharashtra Generalist Officer Model Papers for the sake of applicants. </p><p> </p><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><img alt="Bank of Maharashtra Question" border="0" data-original-height="85" data-original-width="151" height="225" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiqLSJUsHuameiD9q6kxV1ranjr6j0CligMpfVU9Iz6lM8t_8S7QKj8eY2X2fJZWDPp4pZOycsGGfXNVNiB7flJxHYIoR-Fd_8mgN0b4Hzu2kREuq9SWYzUcLHukHTLWchIHW5Xz7dMM9cP/w400-h225/Bank-of-Maharashtra.png" width="400" /></div><br /><p></p><p>People can also check the solutions for the Bank Of Maharashtra Previous Papers. Therefore check your answers with the actual solutions while practicing Bank Of Maharashtra Generalist Officer Old Papers. Then you can know your confidence levels and get the experience. </p><span><a name='more'></a></span><p><br /></p><p>Q1. In a certain code SOUTHERN is written as UVPTMQDG. How is MARIGOLD written in that code?<br />(A) JSBCNFKS<br />(B) JSBNHPME<br />(C) JSBNCKNF<br />(D) NBSKCJNF<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?<br />(A) Tornado<br />(B) Volcano<br />(C) Storm<br />(D) Hurricane<br />(E) Cyclone<br /><br />Q3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EVAPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?<br />(A) One<br />(B) Two<br />(C) Three<br />(D) Four<br />(E) More than four<br /><br />Q4. How many meaningful four letter English words can be formed with the letters ITED using each letter only once in each word ?<br />(A) None<br />(B) One<br />(C) Two<br />(D) Three<br />(E) More than three<br /><br />Directions—(Q. 5–6) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.<br /><br />A vehicle starts from point P and runs 10 kms. towards North. It takes a right turn and runs 15 kms. It now runs 6 kms. after taking a left turn. It finally takes a left turn, runs 15 kms. and stops at point Q.<br /><br />Q5. How far is point Q with respect to point P ?<br />(A) 16 km<br />(B) 25 km<br />(C) 4 km<br />(D) 0 km<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q6. Towards which direction was the vehicle moving before it stopped at point Q ?<br />(A) North<br />(B) East<br />(C) South<br />(D) West<br />(E) North-West<br /><br />Q7. If each of the consonants of the word PURCHASED is substituted by the letter preceding it and each vowel is substituted by the letter following it, which of the following letters would have the same letter on either sides ?<br />(A) B<br />(B) G<br />(C) F<br />(D) Q<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q8. If all the letters in the word NEIGHBOURS are rearranged as they appear in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged after the rearrangement ?<br />(A) None<br />(B) One<br />(C) Two<br />(D) Three<br />(E) More than three<br /><br />Q9. Asha ranks 16th from the top and 15th from the bottom in an examination. How many students are there in the class ?<br />(A) 30<br />(B) 31<br />(C) 32<br />(D) Cannot be determined<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q10. Five students participated in an examination and each scored different marks. Nidhi scored higher than Mamta. Kavita scored lower than Prashant but higher than Nidhi. Anil’s score was between Mamta and Nidhi. Which of the following pairs represents the highest and the lowest scorers respectively ?<br />(A) Nidhi, Kavita<br />(B) Kavita, Mamta<br />(C) Anil, Kavita<br />(D) Prashant, Mamta<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of digit/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given<br />below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. ‘None of these’.<br /><br />Letter : E R J L N A Q D P U B F I K T H<br />Digit/Symbol : * 2 © 9 6 # 5 1 % $ £ 4 @ 7 3 8<br /><br />Conditions :<br />(i) If the first letter is followed by a vowel and the last letter is preceded by a consonant, the last letter is to be coded as the code for vowel following the first letter.<br />(ii) If there are no vowels in the group of letters the codes for the fifth letter from the right and the fifth letter from the left are to be interchanged.<br />(iii) If the group of letters contains more than one vowel, the codes for both the vowels are to be interchanged.<br /><br />Q11. PNEBJI<br />(A) %6@£©*<br />(B) %6*@£©<br />(C) %6*£©@<br />(D) @%£©6*<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q12. FABLNK<br />(A) #4£96#<br />(B) £4#96#<br />(C) 4#£96#<br />(D) 49#6#£<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q13. LPKNJB<br />(A) 9%£67©<br />(B) 9©76%£<br />(C) 9%76©£<br />(D) 96©7%£<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q14. DTQKNH<br />(A) 135768<br />(B) 137568<br />(C) 138765<br />(D) 165783<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q15. TNAPUB<br />(A) 36%$#£<br />(B) 36#%$£<br />(C) 63#%$£<br />(D) 36$%#£<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Directions—(Q. 16-20) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.<br /><br />Q16. Statements :<br />Some jeeps are trains.<br />All trains are buses.<br />Some boats are jeeps.<br />Some scooters are buses.<br />Conclusions :<br />I. Some scooters are trains.<br />II. Some bots are buses.<br />III. Some jeeps are scooters.<br />IV. All buses are trains.<br />(A) None follows<br />(B) Only IV follows<br />(C) Only II and IV follow<br />(D) Only III follows<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q17. Statements :<br />All teachers are engineers.<br />All engineers are cooks.<br />Some cooks are merchants.<br />All merchants are poets.<br />Conclusions :<br />I. Some cooks are teachers.<br />II. Some merchants are engineers.<br />III. All cooks are engineers.<br />IV. Some cooks are poets.<br />(A) None follows<br />(B) Only I follows<br />(C) Only II and IV follow<br />(D) Only I and IV follow<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q18. Statements :<br />Some tools are hammers.<br />Some hammers are nails.<br />All nails are screws.<br />All screws are nuts.<br />Conclusions :<br />I. All nuts are screws.<br />II. Some nuts are tools.<br />III. Some hammers are screws.<br />IV. All nuts are nails.<br />(A) All follow<br />(B) Only I follows<br />(C) Only II follows<br />(D) Only II and III follow<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q19. Statements :<br />All pens are bags.<br />All bags are glasses.<br />No glass is a spoon.<br />All spoons are books.<br />Conclusions :<br />I. Some glasses are pens.<br />II. Some books are bags.<br />III. No spoon is a pen.<br />IV. No bag is a book.<br />(A) Only II and III follow<br />(B) Only I, III and either II or IV follow<br />(C) Either II or IV follows<br />(D) All follow<br />(E) None of these<br /><br /><br />Q20. Statements :<br />All petals are flowers.<br />All thorns are flowers.<br />Some leaves are thorns.<br />Some stems are flowers.<br />Conclusions :<br />I. Some petals are leaves.<br />II. All leaves are flowers.<br />III. Some stems are petals.<br />IV. No petal is a leaf.<br />(A) None follows<br />(B) Only II follows<br />(C) Only II and either I or IV follow<br />(D) Only either I or IV follows<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Directions—(Q. 21-25) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow— 129 642 921 476 308<br /><br />Q21. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the second digit of the lowest number is added to third digit of the highest number after adding 4 to each number ?<br />(A) 5<br />(B) 6<br />(C) 7<br />(D) 8<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q22. If the digits in each of the five numbers are arranged in descending order, the position of how many numbers will not change ?<br />(A) None<br />(B) One<br />(C) Two<br />(D) Three<br />(E) Four<br /><br />Q23. Based upon the given set of numbers, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?<br />(A) 647<br />(B) 264<br />(C) 912<br />(D) 192<br />(E) 380<br /><br />Q24. If in each number, the digits are arranged in ascending order, what will be sum of middle digits of each of the numbers ?<br />(A) 14<br />(B) 12<br />(C) 26<br />(D) 9<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q25. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which will be the second lowest number ?<br />(A) 129<br />(B) 642<br />(C) 921<br />(D) 476<br />(E) 308<br /><br />Directions—(Q. 26-30) These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arranement. Study it carefully and answer the questions.<br />@ B D S 3 W A * V 6 9 Q J % H 8 U N I 2 T 4 # 7 5 $ K<br /><br />Q26. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a number ?<br />(A) None<br />(B) One<br />(C) Two<br />(D) Three<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q27. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based upon their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?<br />(A) BD3<br />(B) %HU<br />(C) *V9<br />(D) T45<br />(E) S3A<br /><br />Q28. Which of the following is exactly in the middle of the 17th from the right and 19th from the left end ?<br />(A) %<br />(B) H<br />(C) J<br />(D) #<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q29. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?<br />* 6 Q 9 J H % 8 N U I T ?<br />(A) N<br />(B) 4<br />(C) #<br />(D) 7<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q30. How many consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by another consonant ?<br />(A) None<br />(B) One<br />(C) Two<br />(D) Three<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Directions—(Q. 31-35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.<br /><br />A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle, facing the centre. F sits to the immediate right of D and third to the left of A. G sits third to the left of D who does not sit next to E. B sits next to G but not next to D. C does not sit next to either D or A.<br /><br />Q31. Who sits to the immediate left of a ?<br />(A) E<br />(B) F<br />(C) G<br />(D) H<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q32. What is the position of H with respect to C ?<br />(A) Second to the left<br />(B) First to the right<br />(C) Third to the right<br />(D) Second to the right<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q33. Which of the following pairs sits between G and D ?<br />(A) AC<br />(B) CF<br />(C) HB<br />(D) FA<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q34. Starting from A’s position, if all the eight are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the seating position of which of the following (excluding A) would not change ?<br />(A) B<br />(B) C<br />(C) D<br />(D) H<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q35. Four of the following are alike based upon their seating arrangement around the circle, which is the one that does not belong to that group ?<br />(A) FH<br />(B) GE<br />(C) CD<br />(D) BG<br />(E) EF<br /><br />Directions—(Q. 36-40) Read the following information carefully and answers the questions which follow—<br /><br />‘A × B’ means ‘A is brother of B’<br />‘A – B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’.<br />‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is wife of B’.<br />‘A + B’ means ‘A is son of B’.<br /><br />Q36. How is T related to P in the expression ‘P + Q – R ÷ T’ ?<br />(A) Maternal grandmother<br />(B) Maternal grandfather<br />(C) Paternal grandmother<br />(D) Grandson<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q37. Which of the following means ‘P is sister of S’ ?<br />(A) P + Q ÷ R – S<br />(B) P + Q ÷ R ×S<br />(C) P × Q – R + S<br />(D) P ÷ Q + R × S<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q38. R + Q ÷ P ? . How is P related to S in the expression ?<br />(A) Father<br />(B) Grandson<br />(C) Son<br />(D) Grandfather<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q39. 'R – T’ . How is R related to P in the expression ?<br />(A) Niece<br />(B) Paternal Uncle<br />(C) Paternal Aunt<br />(D) Either (B) or (C)<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q40. How is S related to P in the expression ‘P – Q ÷ R ?<br />(A) Nephew<br />(B) Uncle<br />(C) Aunt<br />(D) Either (B) or (C)<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Directions—(Q. 41-45) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Give answers—<br />(A) If only argument I is strong.<br />(B) If only argument II is strong.<br />(C) If either argument I or II is strong.<br />(D) If neither argument I nor II is strong.<br />(E) If both arguments I and II are strong.<br /><br />Q41. Statement : Should the number of holidays given to Govt. employees be reduced to only five in a year ?<br />Arguments :<br />I. Yes, such holidays subsequently reduce working hours, thus adversely affecting the economy of nation.<br />II. No, employees require intermittent rest from hectic work schedule.<br /><br />Q42. Statement : Should all correspondence courses at graduate level be stopped ?<br />Arguments :<br />I. No, correspondence courses help needy students to persue studies and earn at the same time.<br />II. Yes, quality education is not possible without teachers and classrooms.<br /><br />Q43. Statement : Should only nuclear power be used to generate electricity ?<br />Arguments :<br />I. Yes, this will help reduce air pollution to a great extent.<br />II. No, Radioactive material used in nuclear plants is unsafe for large scale use.<br /><br />Q44. Statement : Should the Govt. remove all the slums in major cities ?<br />Arguments :<br />I. Yes, slums are a nuisance to the people living in big cities.<br />II. No inhabitants of slums are also citizens of the country and they contribute towards the growth of the nation.<br /><br />Q45. Statement : Should cricket replace hockey as the national sport of India.<br />Arguments :<br />I. Yes, the performance of hockey team has been dismal since last few years.<br />II. No, cricket is the national sport of Australia and no two countries must have the same national sport.<br /><br />Directions—(Q. 46-50) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answers—<br /><br />(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.<br />(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.<br />(C) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.<br />(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.<br />(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.<br /><br />Q46. On which month of the year was Divya born ?<br />I. Her mother correctly remembers that Divya was born after June and before September.<br />II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after March and before August.<br /><br />Q47. What is the code for ‘those’ if in a certain language ‘those lovely red roses’ is written as ‘pe so la ti’ ?<br />I. ‘ni jo ke pe’ means ‘stopped at red light’.<br />II. ‘ba di ti ga’ means ‘roses are very pretty and ‘fo hi la’ means ‘lovely day outside’.<br /><br />Q48. What is Sumit’s rank from the top in a class of 50 students ?<br />I. Ajay is 6 ranks below Sumit and is twenty-ninth from the bottom.<br />II. Ashu is 4 ranks above Sumit and is thirty-fifth from the bottom.<br /><br />Q49. How many sisters does Mala have ?<br />I. The only brother of Mala’s father has only one niece.<br />II. The son of the husband of Mala’s mother has two siblings.<br /><br />Q50. Who among A, B, C and D is sitting next to A if all the four are sitting in a straight line facing North ?<br />I. A does not sit next to D who does not sit next on the extreme right.<br />II. None sit to the left of A and on the right of B, while only one person sits between C and B.<br /><br />Directions—(Q. 51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.<br /><br />P, Q, R, S, T, W and Z are seven students studying in three different institutes – A, B and C. There are three girls among the seven students who study in each of the three institutes. Two of the seven students study BCA, two study medicine and one each studies Aviation Technology, Journalism and MBA. R studies in the same college as P who studies MBA in college B. No girl studies journalism or MBA. T studies BCA in college A and his brother W studies Aviation Technology in college C. S studies journalism in the same college as Q. Neither R nor Z study BCA. The girl who studies BCA does not study in college C.<br /><br />Q51. Which of the following pairs of students study medicine ?<br />(A) QZ<br />(B) WZ<br />(C) PZ<br />(D) SZ<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q52. In which college does Q study ?<br />(A) A<br />(B) B<br />(C) C<br />(D) Data inadequate<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q53. In which of the colleges do three of them study ?<br />(A) A<br />(B) B<br />(C) A and B<br />(D) C<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q54. What is the field of study of Z ?<br />(A) Aviation Technology<br />(B) BCA<br />(C) MBA<br />(D) Medicines<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q55. Which of the following three represents girls ?<br />(A) SQR<br />(B) QRZ<br />(C) SQZ<br />(D) Data inadequate<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Directions—(Q. 56-65) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.<br />For a recruitment process in an organization, the candidates need to possess the following qualifications/criteria.<br />(i) A graduate in science with atleast 60% marks.<br />(ii) An age of atleast 25 years and not more than 40 years as on 1.7.2008.<br />(iii) Have a post-qualification work experience of atleast 2 years.<br />(iv) Should have secured 55% marks in the selection process.<br /><br />However, if the candidates fulfills above mentioned criteria except—<br />(a) At (i) if the candidate is not a graduate in Science but has a post graduation degree with minimum of 60% marks, he/she should be referred to the HRManager of the organization.<br />(b) At (iii) if the candidate fulfils all the eligibility criteria but of postqualification work experience but has secured 75% marks in the selection process, he/she may be referred to the Director of the organization.<br /><br />Based on the above information study carefully whether following candidates are eligible for the recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All the cases are given to you as on 1.7.2008.<br />Mark answers—<br /><br />(A) If the candidate is to be selected.<br />(B) If the candidates is not to be selected.<br />(C) If the candidate may be referred to the HR-Manager.<br />(D) If the candidate may be referred to the Director.<br />(E) If the data provided is inadequate to take the decision.<br /><br />Q56. Shruti Walia has 4 years of post qualification work experience in a top organization. She has secured 59% marks in the selection process. Born on 5.10.1981, she had completed her Bachelor’s degree in Physics in 2004 and secured 66% marks in it.<br /><br />Q57. Pradeep Kumar has 6 years of post qualification work experience. His date of birth is 12.4.1972. He has secured 58% marks in the selection process. He has completed graduation in Science and scored 76% in it.<br /><br />Q58. Zaheer Ahmed has completed graduation and post graduate in Economics from Bhopal in 1999 and has secureds 51% and 68% marks respectively. His date of birth is 26.11.1976. He has been working as an executive in a reputed firm since 2003 till date. He has secured 56% marks in the selection process.<br /><br />Q59. Harpreet Kaur has done graduation in Physics and is a post graduate in Science and has secured 57% and 65% marks respectively. She has secured 59% marks in the selection process, and has a post qualification work experience of 3 years.<br /><br />Q60. Deepak Agarwal has completed graduation and post graduation in Geography with 68% and has secured 57% marks in the selection process. His date of birth is 11.11.1979.<br /><br />Q61. Varun Arora has secured 79% marks in the selection process. He has completed his degree in B.Sc securing 67% marks in it. His date of birth is 9.3.1975, and has a post qualification work experience of one year.<br /><br />Q62. Varsha Nath’s date of birth is 6.2.1979. She has done her graduation and post-graduation in Commerce and secured 59% and 62% marks respectively. She has a post qualification work experience as a senior executive of 3 years and has secured 59% marks in the selection process.<br /><br />Q63. Asha Walia has 4 years of post qualification work experience in a reputed firm. She has done graduation in Botany scoring 71% marks in it. Born on 22.1.1973, she has secured 53% marks in the selection process.<br /><br />Q64. Nitesh Burman has done Grduation in Chemistry and has secured 69% in it. His date of birth is 9.12.1981. He has ranked first in the selection process and has secured 82% marks in it. He has four months of post qualification work experience.<br /><br />Q65. Tanya Shetty has been working in a leading organization since the completion of post graduation in 1990. She was born on 1.5.1968. She is a graduate and a post graduate in Science and has secured more than 60% at both graduate as well as post graduate level. She has secured 71% marks in the selection process.<br /><br />Q66. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ODME using each letter only once in each word ?<br />(A) None<br />(B) One<br />(C) Two<br />(D) Three<br />(E) More than three<br /><br />Q67. How many such digits are there in the number 84315269 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order ?<br />(A) None<br />(B) One<br />(C) Two<br />(D) Three<br />(E) More than three<br /><br />Q68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one tthat does not belong to that group ?<br />(A) 19<br />(B) 35<br />(C) 15<br />(D) 21<br />(E) 27<br /><br />Q69. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?<br />(A) Mars<br />(B) Jupiter<br />(C) Earth<br />(D) Uranus<br />(E) Moon<br /><br />Q70. If only each of the consonants in the word GROUNDS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the third letter from the right end ?<br />(A) O<br />(B) U<br />(C) S<br />(D) V<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q71. What should come next in the following letter series ?<br />A A C A C E A C E G A C E G I A C E G I<br />(A) J<br />(B) K<br />(C) A<br />(D) L<br />(E) None of these<br /><br />Q72. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REFORM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?<br />(A) None<br />(B) One<br />(C) Two<br />(D) Three<br />(E) More than three<br /><br /></p>Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-84433521751189898452021-04-11T13:26:00.000+05:302021-04-11T13:26:00.512+05:30Mental Health Nursing Objective Questions Answers Download Pdf<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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The Mental Health Nursing Objective Questions Answers is helpful for the applicants in their preparation. Referring to the <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2019/08/psychiatric-mental-health-nursing-multiple-choice-questions.html">old exam paper</a> / model paper helps the candidates in knowing how the question paper is going to be. However, here is an overview of question pattern. Download the Previous Year Question Paper Pdf given in the section below. This gives a clear idea of subjects you are preparing.</div>
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<h2 style="text-align: center;">
<u>Mental Health Nursing MCQ</u></h2>
<br />
1. A student is learning about “prodromal syndrome.” Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred?<br />
(a) “Behaviors associated with prodromal syndrome necessitate immediate action by the nurse.”<br />
(b) “Prodromal syndrome occurs after a client’s outburst.”<br />
(c) “Staff cannot assist clients who are experiencing a prodromal syndrome to gain control.”<br />
(d) “Very few symptoms are associated with a prodromal syndrome.”<br />
<br />
2. Which best exemplifies a client’s use of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?<br />
(a) A client feels rage at being raped at a young age, which later is expressed by joining law enforcement<br />
(b) A client is unhappy about being a father, although others know him to dote on his son<br />
(c) A client is drinking 6 to 8 beers a day while still going to AA as a group leader<br />
(d) A client is angry that the call bell is not answered and decides to call the nurse when it is unnecessary<br />
<br />
3. Which immediate biological responses are associated with fight-or-flight syndrome?<br />
(a) Bronchioles in the lungs dilate, and respiration rate increases<br />
(b) Vasopressin increases fluid retention and increases blood pressure<br />
(c) Thyrotropic hormone stimulates the thyroid gland to increase metabolic rate<br />
(d) Gonadotropins cause a decrease in secretion of sex hormone and produce impotence<br />
<br />
4. The nursing student is reviewing information about crisis. Which of the following student statement indicate that the student require additional educational class on crisis intervention?<br />
(a) A crisis is associated with psychopathology<br />
(b) A crisis is precipitated by a specific identifiable event<br />
(c) A crisis is specific to an individual, and the cause may vary<br />
(d) A crisis contains the potential for psychological growth or deterioration<br />
<br />
5. Which of the following tool is used to assess for tardive dyskinesia?<br />
(a) The CAGE assessment tool<br />
(b) Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) scale<br />
(c) The Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS)<br />
(d) Clock face assessment<br />
<br />
6. A Public Health Nurse delivers a lecture on “Suicide Prevention” to the group of Students who failed in the examination. This type of activity refers to ______<br />
(a) Primary prevention<br />
(b) Secondary prevention<br />
(c) Crisis intervention <br />
(d) Stress management<br />
<br />
7. An anxious and highly upset , 13 year old boy visited Psychiatric OPD to discuss his sudden “painful erection of penis and Nocturnal ejaculation”. The boy is suffering from ____<br />
(a) Avoidance conflict<br />
(b) Maturational crisis<br />
(c) Dispositional crisis<br />
(d) Situational crisis<br />
<br />
8. A 4-year-old child is unable to consider another child’s ideas about playing house. This situation is an example of which concept contained in Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?<br />
(a) Intrinsic curiosity<br />
(b) Secondary circular reactions<br />
(c) Inability egocentrism<br />
(d) Concrete operations<br />
<br />
9. The statement, “Growth involves resolution of critical tasks through the eight stages of the life cycle,” is a concept of which therapeutic model?<br />
(a) Interpersonal<br />
(b) Cognitive-behavioral<br />
(c) Intrapersonal <br />
(d) Psychoanalytic<br />
<br />
10. A 25-year-old client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Since being fired 2 months ago, the client stays inside and avoids others. Which outcome reflects this client’s developmental task assessment as described by Erikson?<br />
(a) Stagnation<br />
(b) Despair<br />
(c) Isolation<br />
(d) Role confusion<br />
<br />
11. A mother brings her 2-year-old child to a well-baby clinic for a physical. The child does not attempt to do things independently and continually looks to the mother for meeting all needs. Which outcome reflects this child’s developmental task assessment as described by Erikson?<br />
(a) Mistrust<br />
(b) Guilt<br />
(c) Inferiority<br />
(d) Shame and doubt<br />
<br />
12. Which initial information gathered by the nurse is most important when assessing Erikson’s stages of development?<br />
(a) The chronological age of the individual<br />
(b) The developmental age exhibited through behaviors<br />
(c) The time-frame needed to complete a successful outcome at a previous stage<br />
(d) The implementation of interventions based on developmental age<br />
<br />
13. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which client action would be considered most basic?<br />
(a) A client discusses the need for order in his or her life and freedom from fear.<br />
(b) A client states that he or she feels lonely and is looking for someone to share experiences in his or her life.<br />
(c) A client begins to realize his or her full potential.<br />
(d) A client is role-playing a situation with a nurse to practice assertiveness skills.<br />
<br />
14. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which client action would be an example of a highly evolved, mature client?<br />
(a) A client discusses the need for avoiding harm and maintaining comfort<br />
(b) A client states the need for giving and receiving support from others<br />
(c) A client begins to discuss feelings of self-fulfillment<br />
(d) A client discusses the need to achieve success and recognition in work<br />
<br />
15. Based on the nurse’s knowledge of the DSM-IV-TR, Schizophrenia is grouped in ___:<br />
(a) Axis I<br />
(b) Axis III<br />
(c) Axis IV<br />
(d) Axis V<br />
<br />
16. After studying nursing interventions in the context of nursing theory, the nursing student understands that Roy model is to ____<br />
(a) Activities needed to meet self-care demands and solve self-care deficits<br />
(b) Assisting the client to examine and understand the meaning of life experiences<br />
(c) Interventions that seek to alter or manage stimuli so that adaptive responses can occur<br />
(d) Interactions with versus for the client to achieve maximum potential<br />
<br />
17. Among the following, which groups of individual highly vulnerable to mental illness?<br />
(a) Orphans<br />
(b) Substance abuse<br />
(c) Insufficient Family support <br />
(d) Sports persons who lost in recent games<br />
<br />
18. A nurse is giving a health education to inmates in deaddiction centre. Which component is very essential that nurse should include in Health education in order to promote physical health of the clients?<br />
(a) Managing withdrawl symptoms<br />
(b) Engaging in constructive activity<br />
(c) Adequate intake of diet rich in vitamins<br />
(d) Identification of symptoms of dependence<br />
<br />
19. A Nurse is designing an education program for the family that cares a child with Cerebral palsy. The components of health education should include all EXCEPT___<br />
(a) Stress management<br />
(b) Developmental needs<br />
(c) Family coping<br />
(d) Crisis management<br />
<br />
20. Crisis intervention and counseling are concerned with ______<br />
(a) Primary prevention<br />
(b) Secondary prevention<br />
(c) Tertiary prevention<br />
(d) Health promotion and protection</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-25588977852396983272021-04-11T13:14:00.000+05:302021-04-11T13:14:01.189+05:30Banking Related GK for IBPS | Banking Awareness GK<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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<b>IBPS Banking Related GK</b> Previous Papers are available in our recruitment guru page. Where we have given the direct download link to make the aspirants easy in getting the Previous Papers Pdf. </div>
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However, to help the aspirants in getting their dream jobs we have given the direct download link for the IBPS Banking Related GK Previous Year Question Paper Pdf in the section below. We advise the applicants who are in search of IBPS <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2011/09/national-bank-for-agricultural-and.html">Banking Related GK</a> Question Paper to refer the syllabus and exam pattern details.</div>
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GK Related to Banking and Finance</h2>
Direction(1 - 10) : Answer the following questions based on Banking Awareness.</div><div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on"><br />
1. Bank branches which can undertake foreign exchange business directly are known as …………… in foreign exchange.<br />
(1) Authorized dealers<br />
(2) Foreign dealers<br />
(3) Overseas branches<br />
(4) Approved dealers<br />
(5) Exchange branches<br />
<br />
2. Insurance cover for bank deposition in our country is provided by ……….<br />
(1) SBI<br />
(2) Government of India<br />
(3) GIC<br />
(4) LIC<br />
(5) DICGC<br />
<br />
3. The financial Literacy does not include which of the following?<br />
(1) How to invest the funds<br />
(2) How to use the limited funds carefully<br />
(3) How to minimize the risks<br />
(4) How to reinvest the money earned<br />
(5) None of these<br />
<br />
4. Loans of very small amounts given to low income groups is called ………..<br />
(1) Cash credit<br />
(2) Micro credit<br />
(3) Simple overdraft<br />
(4) No frill loans<br />
(5) Rural credit<br />
<br />
5. When a banker talks about CDR, what is he talking about?<br />
(1) Corporate Debt Restructuring<br />
(2) Corporate Debt Rollover<br />
(3) Company Debt Rollover<br />
(4) Corporate Deposit Restructuring<br />
(5) Company Deposit Restructuring<br />
<br />
6. Expand the term ALM as used in banking/finance sector.<br />
(1) Asset Liability Management<br />
(2) Asset Liability Maturity<br />
(3) Asset Liability Mismatch<br />
(4) Asset Liability manpower<br />
(5) Asset Liability Maintenance<br />
<br />
7. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) are terms most closely related to which of the following industries/markets?<br />
(1) Capital Market<br />
(2) Banking Industry<br />
(3) Commodities Market<br />
(4) Money Market<br />
(5) Mutual fund industry<br />
<br />
8. What is the maximum period for which domestic term deposits are normally accepted by banks in our country?<br />
(1) 3 years<br />
(2) 5 years<br />
(3) 7 years<br />
(4) 10 years<br />
(5) 12 years<br />
<br />
9. If you wish to purchase some U.S Dollars for your travel abroad, you should approach ………………..<br />
(1) The Ministry of Finance<br />
(2) The U.S Embassy<br />
(3) Any Bank Branch authorized to do such activities<br />
(4) The Reserve bank of India only<br />
(5) External Affairs Minister<br />
<br />
10. What does the letter ‘L’ stands for in the term LAF commonly used in financial/economic news?<br />
(1) Liquidity<br />
(2) Least<br />
(3) Liabilities<br />
(4) Long<br />
(5) Liquid</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-38041183275875891772021-04-11T13:12:00.000+05:302021-04-11T13:12:44.504+05:30Nursing Questions Papers Nursing Jobs Recruitment<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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The <b>Nursing Questions</b> Old Papers PDF is available here. So, aspirants can refer the Nursing Question given in this page. Candidates can also free download Nursing Question Previous Papers from the given enclosed links. </div>
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We have provided all Nursing Questions Previous Papers on this page. So, the applicants who are in search of Model Nursing <b>Questions Papers</b> can download from the given free downloading links. Before you start the preparation, refer these Nursing Question Old Papers once, so that you will know the exam pattern. Also, solve these <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2020/05/sample-nursing-question.html">papers</a> along with your subject wise preparation to know your level of knowledge. By solving more Nursing Questions <b>Sample Papers</b>, you will score good marks in the examination.</div>
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1. Health worker female will register:<br />
(a) pregnant women from 3 months of pregnancy onwards<br />
(b) married women in the reproductive period<br />
(c) children through systematic home visits and at clinics<br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
2. The primary nursing diagnosis for a female client with a medical diagnosis of major depression would be<br />
(a) situational low self- esteem R/T altered role<br />
(b) powerlessness R/T loss of idealized self<br />
(c) spiritual distress R/T depression<br />
(d) impaired verbal communication R/T depression<br />
<br />
3. Desmopressin (DDAVP), an analog of ADH is administered in children to treat<br />
(a) Convulsions<br />
(b) neurogenic diabetes insipidus<br />
(c) encephalitis<br />
(d) none of these<br />
<br />
4. Under Five clinic service includes<br />
(a) care in illness<br />
(b) family planning<br />
(c) oral rehydration <br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
5. An increased pulsation, felt through the lateral fornices at 8th week of pregnancy is called<br />
(a) Goodell’s sign<br />
(b) Chadwick sign<br />
(c) Osiander’s sign<br />
(d) Piskaceli’s sign<br />
<br />
6. During neonatal period, anaemia may be caused by<br />
(a) Haemorrhage<br />
(b) Hemolysis<br />
(c) Infections<br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
7. The most crucial stage of labour is _________ of labour<br />
(a) First Stage<br />
(b) Second stage<br />
(c) Third stage <br />
(d) All stages<br />
<br />
8. A 4years old child accidentally splashes detergents into his eyes. Eye decontamination may be achieved by copious irrigation with<br />
(a) alkaline irrigating solution<br />
(b) water<br />
(c) acid <br />
(d) none of these<br />
<br />
9. A pregnancy in which the fertilized ovum is implanted and develops outside the normal uterine cavity is called<br />
(a) vaginal fistula<br />
(b) ectopic pregnancy<br />
(c) hydramnios <br />
(d) hydatiform mole<br />
<br />
10. The principle of management which implies that for one action, an employee should receive orders from one superior only, is<br />
(a) discipline<br />
(b) division of work<br />
(c) unity of command <br />
(d) unity of direction<br />
<br />
11. True postpartum haemorrhage is a blood loss in excess of 500ml which occurs<br />
(a) subsequent to expulsion of placenta<br />
(b) before expulsion of placenta<br />
(c) beyond 24 hours and within puerperium <br />
(d) none of these<br />
<br />
12. Severe anaemia during pregnancy may contribute to complications such as<br />
(a) pre-eclampsia<br />
(b) heart failure<br />
(c) pre-term labour<br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
13. In case of mild puerperal sepsis, lochial discharge is<br />
(a) Scanty<br />
(b) Odourless<br />
(c) offensive and copious<br />
(d) none of these<br />
<br />
14. The term Oral Rehydration Therapy (ORT) refers to<br />
(a) WHO recommended ORS solution<br />
(b) food based solutions<br />
(c) solutions made from sugar & salt <br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
15. A client with schizophrenia hears a voice telling him he is evil and must die. This implies that the client is experiencing<br />
(a) a delusion<br />
(b) flight of ideas<br />
(c) ideas of reference<br />
(d) a hallucination<br />
<br />
16. Indications for episiotomy may include EXCEPT<br />
(a) rigid perineum<br />
(b) anticipating perineal tear<br />
(c) all cases of vaginal delivery<br />
(d) previous perineal surgery<br />
<br />
17. The maximum possible score in Apgar scoring is<br />
(a) 10<br />
(b) 12<br />
(c) 8 <br />
(d) 6<br />
<br />
18. Prolonged deficiency of vitamin A in children’s diet may result in a syndrome of<br />
(a) Marasmus<br />
(b) Kwashiorkor<br />
(c) Xerophthalmia<br />
(d) none of these<br />
<br />
19. The drugs of varying chemical nature that have the power to excite contractions of the uterine muscles<br />
(a) Prostaglandins<br />
(b) Oxytocics<br />
(c) Oxytocin<br />
(d) Ergot derivatives<br />
<br />
20. The uterus, at term pregnancy, measures about ________ in length<br />
(a) 20 cm<br />
(b) 25 cm<br />
(c) 30 cm<br />
(d) 35 cm<br />
<br />
21. Treatment for Rheumatic fever in children includes<br />
(a) bed rest & diet<br />
(b) penicillin<br />
(c) suppressive therapy<br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
22. Dissolution in the continuity of the uterine wall any time beyond 28 weeks of pregnancy is called<br />
(a) Subinvolution<br />
(b) Oligohydramnios<br />
(c) Rupture of uterus <br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
23. A training programme which is intended to acquaint a newly hires employee with job responsibilities, work place, clients and co- workers is called<br />
(a) job orientation<br />
(b) in-service education<br />
(c) continuing education <br />
(d) none of these<br />
<br />
24. The process of fusion of the spermatozoon with the mature ovum is called<br />
(a) Fertilization<br />
(b) Implantation<br />
(c) Ovulation<br />
(d) Oogenesis<br />
<br />
25. The relative indication for caesarean section is<br />
(a) central placenta praevia<br />
(b) malpresentation<br />
(c) pelvic mass<br />
(d) contracted pelvis</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-68771426608931918832020-09-12T23:35:00.001+05:302020-09-12T23:35:06.969+05:30Bihar Home Guards Sepoy Question Papers | Syllabus 2020<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
The people who are in search for CSBC <b>Bihar Home Guards Sepoy</b> Question Papers can download here. We have given free downloading links for CSBC Bihar Home Guards Sepoy Sample Papers.<br />
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So the applicants who are going to start their preparation can check Bihar Central Selection Board of Constable Sepoy Old Question Papers along with solutions. We provided complete information regarding CSBC Bihar Home Guards Sepoy Previous Papers.<br />
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Bihar Home Guards Sepoy Previous Question</h2>
Applicants can get these Bihar Home Guards Sepoy Model Papers by downloading Free PDFs given below. Go through the entire article to get the CSBC Bihar Home Guards Sepoy Syllabus and Exam Pattern in addition to the Previous Question Papers. Free Download Bihar Central Selection Board of Constable Sepoy Previous Papers PDF.<br />
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<a href="https://www.examyear.com/bihar-police-general-studies-question-papers-in-hindi/">Click to Download Previous Question Papers</a></div>
<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Sepoy Model Question Papers</h2>
Bihar Home Guards has given the notification for Sepoy vacancies. Candidates who are interested can apply online. And keep checking our page for more exam updates like exam dates. Check the exam pattern for Sepoy post given in the section following.<br />
Here are a few details regarding the Bihar Central Selection Board of Constable Sepoy recruitment. Check the exam pattern details for Sepoy written examination. Having knowledge of question paper pattern helps a lot in preparation. Hence, go through the details in the section following and know complete details. Later, download and refer all the CSBC Bihar Home Guards previous year paper pdf.<br />
Bihar Home Guards Sepoy exam previous year papers pdf free download links are given below. Aspirants who are looking for Bihar Central Selection Board of Constable Sepoy exam previous year question paper pdf can download here. Just click on the link to download pdf. The paper below is only for reference. Aspirants can make use of these papers for reference and practice purpose. Candidates who are interested can check the official website for CSBC Bihar Home Guards previous year question papers for Sepoy pdf. <br />
<br />
<div style="text-align: center;">
<a href="https://www.examyear.com/bihar-police-aptitude-question-papers-in-hindi/" target="_blank">Click to download Sample Papers</a></div>
<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Bihar Police Swabhiman Sample Question Papers</h2>
The Bihar Home Guards has recently released the recruitment notification for filling vacant positions. The commenced the advertisements for recruiting candidates into Sepoy vacancies. Candidates who aimed their career at the Bihar Home Guards Jobs can use this great opportunity.<br />
Visit the Official Website for the latest updates, alerts, recruitment notification, and so on. Interested aspirants can check the Official Notification for eligibility criteria, educational qualifications, job details, etc. The Sepoy vacant positions are in different. Eligible aspirants can apply Online for the CSBC Bihar Home Guards Sepoy from its official website. <br />
<br />
<div style="text-align: center;">
<a href="https://www.examyear.com/bihar-police-general-english-question-papers/" target="_blank">Model Question Papers</a></div>
<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Bihar Home Guards Sepoy Old Question</h2>
Aspirants can find the Bihar Central Selection Board of Constable Sepoy Previous Year Question Paper with answers here. The direct links to download the pdf are given in the tabular section below. Candidates just need to click on the links and download the Pdf for free.<br />
Hope our material will help you in your preparation. For more details visit the official Bihar Home Guards page. Bihar Home Guards Sepoy Question Paper for Both prelims and Mains Examination are available here. The Candidate who is appearing for Bihar Central Selection Board of Constable Sepoy can download the Previous Paper from the link given.<br />
<div style="text-align: center;">
<a href="https://www.examyear.com/bihar-police-general-hindi-question-papers/" target="_blank">Hindi Question Papers</a></div>
Also, refer the Bihar Home Guards Sepoy Exam Syllabus and Test Patter from the link given. Applicants can download the Syllabus Pdf for free of cost from the link. However, hope our material will help you in your preparation. Furthermore, check the Updated Bihar Home Guards Sepoy Syllabus from the link below.<br />
Also, download the Bihar Home Guards Sepoy Syllabus Pdf. However, check the CSBC Bihar Home Guards Sepoy Syllabus section wise and Exam Pattern here. Hope our material helps you in your preparation, keep visiting.</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-23719073758988031042020-09-12T23:30:00.001+05:302020-09-12T23:30:28.242+05:30Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable Question Papers | Syllabus<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
The people who are in search for CSBC <b>Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable</b> Question Papers can download here. We have given free downloading links for CSBC Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable Sample Papers.<br />
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<br />
So the applicants who are going to start their preparation can check Bihar Central Selection Board of Constable Lady Constable Old Question Papers along with solutions. We provided complete information regarding CSBC Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable Previous Papers.<br />
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<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable Previous Question</h2>
Applicants can get these Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable Model Papers by downloading Free PDFs given below. Go through the entire article to get the CSBC Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable Syllabus and Exam Pattern in addition to the Previous Question Papers. Free Download Bihar Central Selection Board of Constable Lady Constable Previous Papers PDF.<br />
<div style="text-align: center;">
<a href="https://www.examyear.com/bihar-police-general-studies-question-papers-in-hindi/">Click to Download Previous Question Papers</a></div>
<br />
<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Lady Constable Model Question Papers</h2>
Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion has given the notification for Lady Constable vacancies. Candidates who are interested can apply online. And keep checking our page for more exam updates like exam dates. Check the exam pattern for Lady Constable post given in the section following.<br />
Here are a few details regarding the Bihar Central Selection Board of Constable Lady Constable recruitment. Check the exam pattern details for Lady Constable written examination. Having knowledge of question paper pattern helps a lot in preparation. Hence, go through the details in the section following and know complete details. Later, download and refer all the CSBC Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion previous year paper pdf.<br />
Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable exam previous year papers pdf free download links are given below. Aspirants who are looking for Bihar Central Selection Board of Constable Lady Constable exam previous year question paper pdf can download here. Just click on the link to download pdf. The paper below is only for reference. Aspirants can make use of these papers for reference and practice purpose. Candidates who are interested can check the official website for CSBC Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion previous year question papers for Lady Constable pdf. <br />
<br />
<div style="text-align: center;">
<a href="https://www.examyear.com/bihar-police-aptitude-question-papers-in-hindi/" target="_blank">Click to download Sample Papers</a></div>
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<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Bihar Police Swabhiman Sample Question Papers</h2>
The Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion has recently released the recruitment notification for filling vacant positions. The commenced the advertisements for recruiting candidates into Lady Constable vacancies. Candidates who aimed their career at the Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Jobs can use this great opportunity.<br />
Visit the Official Website for the latest updates, alerts, recruitment notification, and so on. Interested aspirants can check the Official Notification for eligibility criteria, educational qualifications, job details, etc. The Lady Constable vacant positions are in different. Eligible aspirants can apply Online for the CSBC Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable from its official website. <br />
<br />
<div style="text-align: center;">
<a href="https://www.examyear.com/bihar-police-general-english-question-papers/" target="_blank">Model Question Papers</a></div>
<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable Old Question</h2>
Aspirants can find the Bihar Central Selection Board of Constable Lady Constable Previous Year Question Paper with answers here. The direct links to download the pdf are given in the tabular section below. Candidates just need to click on the links and download the Pdf for free.<br />
Hope our material will help you in your preparation. For more details visit the official Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion page. Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable Question Paper for Both prelims and Mains Examination are available here. The Candidate who is appearing for Bihar Central Selection Board of Constable Lady Constable can download the Previous Paper from the link given.<br />
<div style="text-align: center;">
<a href="https://www.examyear.com/bihar-police-general-hindi-question-papers/" target="_blank">Hindi Question Papers</a></div>
Also, refer the Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable Exam Syllabus and Test Patter from the link given. Applicants can download the Syllabus Pdf for free of cost from the link. However, hope our material will help you in your preparation. Furthermore, check the Updated Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable Syllabus from the link below.<br />
Also, download the Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable Syllabus Pdf. However, check the CSBC Bihar Police Swabhiman Battalion Lady Constable Syllabus section wise and Exam Pattern here. Hope our material helps you in your preparation, keep visiting.</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-38206339202416624302020-08-06T13:16:00.002+05:302020-08-06T13:19:45.246+05:30WBPSC Ward Master Grade III Previous Year Question Papers<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
Are you searching for <strong>WBPSC Ward Master Grade III Previous Year Question Papers</strong>? Yes you are at the right place. Here we provided last five years Ward Master Grade III Sample papers with solutions. Hence applicants can practice these Ward Master Model Papers to get experience.<br />
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We have given WBPSC Previous Papers. People can check PSCWB Ward Master <strong>Solved papers</strong> by visiting the below links. Looking for the direct links for downloading <a href="https://wbpsc.gov.in/" rel="noopener noreferrer" target="_blank">WBPSC</a> <strong>Model Papers</strong>? If so, here are the direct links for downloading the PSC entire subjects.<br />
Hence, the interested candidates can get the respective WB PSC <strong>Old Papers</strong> without being paid. Download the West Bengal Public Service Commission Previous Papers here and prepare well for the exam. WBPSC Ward Master previous year question paper for the written examination is given below.<br />
Candidates who are looking for WB PSC Ward Master exam <strong>model question</strong> paper can find in this section. PSCWB has given the notification for Ward Master Grade III vacancies all over West Bengal.<br />
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<br />
<h2>
Scheme of Examination</h2>
Written Test will be objective type (MCQ) in 4 different series, viz., A, B, C & D.<br />
<ul>
<li>Number of questions: 100, each carrying 2 marks.</li>
<li>Full marks: 200.</li>
<li>Duration: 1 hour 30 minutes.</li>
</ul>
<h2>
Syllabus</h2>
<table border="1" cellpadding="3" cellspacing="0" style="width: 100%;"><tbody>
<tr> <td style="width: 33.3333%;"><strong>Subject</strong></td> <td style="width: 33.3333%;"><strong>Marks</strong></td> <td style="width: 33.3333%;"></td> </tr>
<tr> <td style="width: 33.3333%;">General Studies</td> <td style="width: 33.3333%;">150</td> <td style="width: 33.3333%;">Questions will be set to test General Knowledge of a candidate in different spheres.</td> </tr>
<tr> <td style="width: 33.3333%;">Arithmetic</td> <td style="width: 33.3333%;">50</td> <td style="width: 33.3333%;">Questions will be set on the basis of a syllabus of Madhyamik Examination of the West Bengal Board of Secondary Education.</td> </tr>
</tbody> </table>
<br />
<h3>
General Studies Syllabus</h3>
WBPSC Ward Master details syllabus on General Studies is given below. Read this syllabus before exam preparation.<br />
<table border="1" cellpadding="3" cellspacing="0" style="width: 100%;"><tbody>
<tr> <td>Ancient India</td> <td>Medieval India</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Modern India</td> <td>Art and Culture of India</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>World History</td> <td>World Geography</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Indian Geography</td> <td>Landform</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Enviornment and Ecology</td> <td>Indian Polity and Constitution</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Indian Economy</td> <td>Physics</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Chemistry</td> <td>Life Science</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Information Technology</td> <td>Indian Panorama</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>World Panorama</td> <td>Books and Autors</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Awards and Honours</td> <td>Games and Sports</td> </tr>
</tbody> </table>
<br />
<h3>
Arithmetic Syllabus</h3>
Below is Arithmetic Syllabus for Ward Master examination. As per syllabus we publish WBPSC Ward Master Grade III Previous Year Question Papers for candidate's preparation.<br />
<table border="1" cellpadding="3" cellspacing="0" style="width: 100%;"><tbody>
<tr> <td>Number System - Prime Number, Divisibility, Remainder, Number Series, Binary Number System</td> <td>HCF and LCM of Numbers</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Fraction</td> <td>Simplification and Approximation - Decimal Fraction, Mixed Fraction, Recurring Decimals</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Percentage</td> <td>Average</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Ratio and Proportion</td> <td>Mixture</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Chain Rule</td> <td>Time, Work and Wages</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Pipes and Cisterns</td> <td>Profit, Loss and Discount</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Simple Interest</td> <td>Compound Interest, Growth and Depreciation</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Share and Debentures</td> <td>Time and Distance</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Trains</td> <td>Boats and Streams</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Races</td> <td>Clocks</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Area of Plain Figure</td> <td>Volume and Surface Area of Solid Figure</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Data Interpretation</td> <td>Data Sufficiency</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Calendar</td> <td>Problems on Age</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Probablity</td> <td>Permutation and Combination</td> </tr>
<tr> <td>Linear Equations</td> <td>Quadratic Equations and Inequations</td> </tr>
</tbody> </table>
<br />
<h2>
Previous Year Question Question Papers of WBPSC Ward Master</h2>
Aspirants can download the latest WBPSC Ward Master Grade III Previous Year Question Papers. Download WBPSC Previous Papers at free of cost. We have displaced WBPSC Ward Master Grade III Previous Year Question Papers and Old Papers along with solutions. People can use the WB PSC Sample Papers as a reference in your preparation.<br />
<br />
<h3>
WBPSC Arithmetic Model Question Papers</h3>
1. The cost of a printer at a shop was Rs 4500. The sales tax charged was 5 %. Find the bill amount<br />
(a) Rs 472<br />
(b) Rs 4735<br />
(c) Rs 5724<br />
(d) Rs 5624<br />
<br />
2. 2/3 of a number is 20 less than original number, find the number<br />
(a) 40<br />
(b) 50<br />
(c) 60<br />
(d) 70<br />
<br />
3. Siami’s mother is four times as old as Siami. After 5 years, her mother will be three times as old as she will be then. Then Siami’s present age is<br />
(a) 40<br />
(b) 30<br />
(c) 20<br />
(d) 10<br />
<br />
4. In what time, Rs 500 will become Rs 1200 when annual rate of interest is 10%.<br />
(a) 12 years<br />
(b) 14 years<br />
(c) 16 years<br />
(d) 20 years<br />
<br />
5. Find the amount on Rs 6250 for 1 Year at 8% per annum compounded half yearly.<br />
(a) Rs 6760<br />
(b) Rs 6770<br />
(c) Rs 6750<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
6. If mean of 2, 5, x and 8 is 6, then find the value of x<br />
(a) 6<br />
(b) 7<br />
(c) 5<br />
(d) 9<br />
<br />
7. Find the median of 4, 7, 5, 2, 13, 9, 11, 16<br />
(a) 6<br />
(b) 7<br />
(c) 8<br />
(d) 9<br />
<br />
8. The mean of 10 numbers is 25. If 5 is added to each number, what will be new mean?<br />
(a) 25<br />
(b) 30<br />
(c) 35<br />
(d) 40<br />
<br />
9. If the mode of the following data 11, 10, 12, 10, 17, 14, 17, 13, 12, x, 9, 7 is 17, then the value of x is<br />
(a) 14<br />
(b) 12<br />
(c) 10<br />
(d) 17<br />
<br />
10. The class mark of the class 120 – 140 is<br />
(a) 120<br />
(b) 125<br />
(c) 130<br />
(d) 135<br />
<br />
11. The compliment of 2/3 of a right angle is<br />
(a) 30°<br />
(b) 60°<br />
(c) 90°<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
12. A speed of 25 m/s equals to<br />
(a) 50 km/h<br />
(b) 60 km/h<br />
(c) 90 km/h<br />
(d) 20 km/h<br />
<br />
13. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, while A alone can finish it in 30 days. In how many days B alone finish the work?<br />
(a) 10 days<br />
(b) 20 days<br />
(c) 30 days<br />
(d) 25 days<br />
<br />
14. What is the probability of a sure event?<br />
(a) 0<br />
(b) 1<br />
(c) 1/2<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
15. A bag contains 3 white, 4 red and 5 black balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is neither black nor white?<br />
(a) 1/4<br />
(b) 1/3<br />
(c) 3/4<br />
(d) 1/2<br />
<br />
<h3>
Ward Master Sample Papers on General Studies</h3>
1. How many members of the Lok Sabha are elected by the States?<br />
(a) Nearly 540<br />
(b) Nearly 535<br />
(c) Nearly 530<br />
(d) Nearly 528<br />
<br />
2. The Judges of the Supreme Court of India are appointed by<br />
(a) The President<br />
(b) The Vice-President<br />
(c) The Prime Minister<br />
(d) The Home Minister<br />
<br />
3. To elect the President of India which one of the following election procedures is used?<br />
(a) System of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote<br />
(b) Proportional representation through list system<br />
(c) Collective voting system<br />
(d) Secondary voting system<br />
<br />
4. Which of the following are collectively called the council of ministers?<br />
1. Cabinet ministers<br />
2. Minister of state<br />
3. Minister of state, independent charge<br />
4. Deputy Minister<br />
5. Parliamentary secretaries<br />
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?<br />
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only<br />
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only<br />
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only<br />
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only<br />
<br />
5. If any party has not obtained the required number of seats second to the majority party (that is 10% of the seats) in the Lok Sabha then by who/which of the following mode the leader of opposition will be selected?<br />
(a) Leader of the pre-poll coalition<br />
(b) Person from the second largest single party irrespective of the numbers<br />
(c) It is the prerogative of the Speaker to appoint a Leader of Opposition<br />
(d) Leader of opposition will be chosen by the Prime Minister<br />
<br />
6. Consider the following statements:<br />
1. Same person can be appointed as Governor for two or more states.<br />
2. If a person is appointed as the Governor for more than one state, the salary of the person is determined by the Rajya Sabha.<br />
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?<br />
(a) 1 only<br />
(b) 2 only<br />
(c) Both 1 and 2<br />
(d) Neither 1 nor 2<br />
<br />
7. Consider the following statements:<br />
1. Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes are weaker sections according to the Constitution.<br />
2. The Constitution has not defined who the weaker sections of the society are.<br />
3. The Constitution mandates the government to promote the educational and economic interest of the weaker sections of the society.<br />
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?<br />
(a) 1 only<br />
(b) 1 and 3 only<br />
(c) 1 and 2 only<br />
(d) 1, 2 and 3<br />
<br />
8. Who among the following was not a member of the Congress Socialist Party, although he encouraged and blessed its formation?<br />
(a) Achyuta Patwardhan<br />
(b) Jayaprakash Narayanan<br />
(c) Acharya Narendra Dev<br />
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru<br />
<br />
9. The Chairman or members of a Public Service Commission is removed by<br />
(a) the President on the resolution of the Parliament<br />
(b) the President on the Report of the Supreme Court<br />
(c) the Governor on the recommendation of the State Legislature<br />
(d) the President on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers<br />
<br />
10. Currently, India is in an anomalous situation of being largely self-sufficient with large stocks of food grains on the one hand and registering high food inflation on the other. The situation is largely due to:<br />
(a) productivity in food grains is far below global standards.<br />
(b) the incidence of higher temperatures and higher rainfall variability with lower mean rainfall is increasing over the years.<br />
(c) government is becoming the single largest buyer of food grains.<br />
(d) soil degradation due to declining fertilizer-use efficiency.<br />
<br />
<h2>
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ)</h2>
<strong>What is the job role of a ward master grade iii of pscwb?</strong><br />
<br />
Ward Master jobs are related to Hospitals and Health Service. In this recruitment WBPSC will recruit ESI Hospitals under Labour Department.<br />
<br />
<strong>What is the syllabus of wbpsc wardmaster grade 3?</strong><br />
<br />
We give a detail syllabus for aspirants. Go above and read the syllabus.<br />
<br />
<strong>WBPSC ward master grade iii exam date</strong><br />
<br />
Initially it was notified 16/08/2020 for exam date. But recently PSC issued a notification where they declared exam date may change.</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-27019742618697304062020-08-06T12:20:00.000+05:302020-08-06T12:23:47.912+05:30WBPSC Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Previous Question<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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Are you searching for WBPSC <strong>Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Previous Year Question Papers</strong>? Then you are in the right place. Why Because In our page we provide complete material regarding Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Previous Year Question. Aspirants can download Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Model Papers here.<br />
<a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgVCkA0bHuXgwVD34CJ9YRPh30JtKbGvwzgZggcPqvkIQtSVWMc7RUQSkP2LL6zrJgCYz73mceonurJ7r1eR0Th4Raq2xjxs0aR6bw7fEiAVoluRbP2T-sqnLOp9zMZ0tasiOrfvQm4CHbt/s1600/WBPSC.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="clear: left; float: left; margin-bottom: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="WBPSC Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Previous Question" border="0" data-original-height="200" data-original-width="300" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgVCkA0bHuXgwVD34CJ9YRPh30JtKbGvwzgZggcPqvkIQtSVWMc7RUQSkP2LL6zrJgCYz73mceonurJ7r1eR0Th4Raq2xjxs0aR6bw7fEiAVoluRbP2T-sqnLOp9zMZ0tasiOrfvQm4CHbt/s1600/WBPSC.jpg" title="WBPSC Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Previous Question" /></a>We have given free downloading links for WBPSC Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Previous Year Question Papers. Candidates can find West Bengal Public Service Commission Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Practice Papers given below. People can check the questions and answers as a reference while practicing.<br />
By practicing West Bengal Public Service Commission Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Previous Papers, Applicants can know the difficulty level of exam. You can find furthermore West Bengal Public Service Commission Model Papers at the site given below. Aspirants who applied for Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Jobs should start the preparation for the Written Exam as early as possible.<br />
<br />
The Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Previous Year Question is updated here. Applicants applied for the PSCWB Jobs can check the study materials from our website. West Bengal Public Service Commission Previous Year Papers is given here for reference.<br />
<br />
Hence, interested aspirants can download the WBPSC Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Model Papers from the provided links. The previous year question papers are important to refer if you want to crack the exam.<br />
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<h2>
Scheme of Examination</h2>
Screening Test will be objective type (MCQ) in 4 different series, viz., A, B, C & D.<br />
<ul>
<li>Number of questions: 100, each carrying 1 mark.</li>
<li>Full marks: 100.</li>
<li>Duration: 1 hour 30 minutes</li>
<li>N.B.: There will be negative marking for wrong answers as per norms.</li>
</ul>
<br />
<h2>
Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Exam Syllabus</h2>
<ol>
<li>English (Madhyamik Examination Standard)</li>
<li>General Studies & Current Affairs</li>
<li>Arithmetic & Mensuration (Madhyamik Examination Standard)</li>
<li>General Science with emphasis on Life Science (Madhyamik Examination Standard)</li>
</ol>
<br />
<h2>
Model Questions on English for Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak</h2>
<br />
Directions (questions 1-8): Indicate the correct meaning of the idioms and phrases given:<br />
<br />
1. To be taken aback<br />
(a) Surprised<br />
(b) Angered<br />
(c) cared<br />
(d) paired<br />
<br />
2. To give oneself airs<br />
(a) to be arrogant<br />
(b) to make a garland<br />
(c) to link together<br />
(d) to do freely<br />
<br />
3. All and sundry<br />
(a) Everyone<br />
(b) Destroy<br />
(c) Watchful<br />
(d) final<br />
<br />
4. Alpha and Omega<br />
(a) the beginning and the end<br />
(b) befitting a woman<br />
(c) a verbal message<br />
(d) article for sale<br />
<br />
5. Apple-pie order<br />
(a) a sudden shock<br />
(b) perfect order<br />
(c) all belongings<br />
(d) cause of contention<br />
<br />
6. Apple of one’s eye<br />
(a) to charge fairly<br />
(b) much prized treasure<br />
(c) to achieve two results<br />
(d) to pass a crisis<br />
<br />
7. To put the cart before the horse<br />
(a) to imagine a fine future<br />
(b) to do things the wrong way<br />
(c) to have a private end to serve<br />
(d) to have bitter enemies<br />
<br />
8. To fall flat<br />
(a) to flatter<br />
(b) to fail<br />
(c) to pass<br />
(d) to do all in one’s power<br />
<br />
Directions (Questions 9 – 10) Fill in the blanks with the idioms /phrases out of the given options:<br />
<br />
9. In spite of all his brag he had to eat __________.<br />
(a) humble pie<br />
(b) the cake<br />
(c) the last pie<br />
(d) the last bite<br />
<br />
10. I am prepared to meet you __________.<br />
(a) half-way<br />
(b) middle way<br />
(c) no way<br />
(d) final way<br />
<br />
<h2>
Sample Papers on Arithmetic & Mensuration</h2>
<br />
1. In a group of 850 persons 600 can speak English, 340 can speak Hindi, find the number of persons that can speak English only.<br />
(a) 420<br />
(b) 510<br />
(c) 570<br />
(d) 610<br />
<br />
2. Lala brought a book for Rs 500 and sold it for Rs 750, his gain percent is<br />
(a) 40 %<br />
(b) 50 %<br />
(c) 60 %<br />
(d) 10 %<br />
<br />
3. If C.P = 1650 and gain = 4 %, then S.P = ?<br />
(a) 1617<br />
(b) 1721<br />
(c) 1616<br />
(d) 1716<br />
<br />
4. If M.P = 500, S.P = 450, then the discount percentage is<br />
(a) 10 %<br />
(b) 20 %<br />
(c) 30 %<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
5. If a : b = 7 : 5 and b : c = 10 : 13, find a : c<br />
(a) 7 : 8<br />
(b) 12 : 11<br />
(c) 14 : 13<br />
(d) 15 : 13<br />
<br />
6. 6 bowls cost Rs 180. What would be the cost of 20 such bowls?<br />
(a) Rs 900<br />
(b) Rs 600<br />
(c) Rs 700<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
7. What same number must be added to the terms of the ratio 11:29, so that the ratio becomes 11:20?<br />
(a) 9<br />
(b) 11<br />
(c) 13<br />
(d) 15<br />
<br />
8. What percent of 80 is 16?<br />
(a) 10 %<br />
(b) 15 %<br />
(c) 20 %<br />
(d) 25 %<br />
<br />
9. If 12 % of a number is 15, then 20 % of the number is<br />
(a) 10<br />
(b) 15<br />
(c) 20<br />
(d) 25<br />
<br />
10. If 36 % of the pupils in a school are girls and the number of boys in the school is 816. Then the number of girls in the school is<br />
(a) 453<br />
(b) 457<br />
(c) 459<br />
(d) 467<br />
<br />
<h2>
Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Previous Year Question from GK and General Science</h2>
<br />
1. The Indian sub-continent is not originally originated in the Northern Hemisphere. It was a part of<br />
(a) Laurasia<br />
(b) Gondwana<br />
(c) Pangea<br />
(d) Antarctica<br />
<br />
2. Which of the following isotherm divides India into tropical and sub-tropical regions?<br />
(a) 15 deg winter isotherm<br />
(b) 15 deg summer isotherm<br />
(c) 21 deg winter isotherm<br />
(d) 21 deg summer isotherm<br />
<br />
3. Even during very low winter temperature, Delhi experiences dense fog but very rarely experiences snowfall. This is due to<br />
(a) less availability of moisture<br />
(b) air mass doesn’t reach its saturation<br />
(c) Delhi is located on plain<br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
4. Which of the following has minimum energy consumption?<br />
(a) Cathode ray tube<br />
(b) Plasma TV<br />
(c) LED TV<br />
(d) LCD TV<br />
<br />
5. The ratio of distance travelled by two bodies A and B starting from rest moving along a straight line is x : 1. Then the ratio of their displacements is<br />
(a) 1 : 1<br />
(b) 1 : x<br />
(c) x : 1<br />
(d) x2 : 1<br />
<br />
6. During thunder and lightning, we often see the light first and the sound is heard only after few seconds. Which could be the correct explanation for this?<br />
(a) Thunder is always produced after lightning<br />
(b) Sound travels slower than light in air<br />
(c) Light can travel in vacuum while sound cannot<br />
(d) Light travels faster than sound in water<br />
<br />
7. When a light is moving from air to water which of the following phenomenon can occur?<br />
1. Reflection<br />
2. Refraction<br />
3. Total internal reflection<br />
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?<br />
(a) 1 and 2 only<br />
(b) 2 and 3 only<br />
(c) 2 only<br />
(d) All of these<br />
<br />
8. Two glass prisms are placed side by side, one placed upright and the other one inverted. A white light is allowed to pass through both prisms. The light coming out of the second prism will be<br />
(a) White light<br />
(b) VIBGYOR with violet light at the top<br />
(c) VIBGYOR with red light at the top<br />
(d) Two sets of VIBGYOR with one over the other<br />
<br />
9. If wind blows in a direction opposite to the sound propagation, then the velocity of the sound<br />
(a) Increases<br />
(b) Decreases<br />
(c) remains constant<br />
(d) cannot be determined<br />
<br />
10. A body travelling with a speed of more than the velocity of sound in air is said to travel with<br />
(a) supersonic speed<br />
(b) hypersonic speed<br />
(c) ultrasonic speed<br />
(d) infrasonic speed<br />
<br />
11. A dynamo works on the principle of<br />
(a) Magnetic effect of current<br />
(b) Electromagnetic induction<br />
(c) Photo electric effect<br />
(d) Electromagnetic theory<br />
<br />
12. A dielectric is<br />
(a) a bad conductor of electricity<br />
(b) also called a resistor<br />
(c) also called a capacitor<br />
(d) an electric device leaving two magnetic poles<br />
<br />
13. Which among the following is a bad conductor of electricity?<br />
(a) Silver<br />
(b) Copper<br />
(c) Aluminium<br />
(d) Phosphorus<br />
<br />
14. Which of the following statements is/are true about electric current?<br />
1. The drift speed of electrons inside a conductor is almost equal to the speed of light in vacuum.<br />
2. The motion of electrons in the conductor is similar to flow of charges in empty space.<br />
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?<br />
(a) 1 only<br />
(b) 2 only<br />
(c) Both 1 and 2<br />
(d) Neither 1 nor 2<br />
<br />
15. When equal quantities of oil, water and mercury are poured into a beaker, the order in which the liquids arrange themselves from bottom to top is<br />
(a) mercury, water, oil<br />
(b) water, mercury, oil<br />
(c) water, oil, mercury<br />
(d) mercury, oil, water<br />
<br />
16. Which of the following Phenomena are associated with surface tension?<br />
1. Floating of leaf on the surface of water.<br />
2. Insect walking on the water.<br />
3. Movement of water inside a straw.<br />
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?<br />
(a) 1 and 2 only<br />
(b) 2 only<br />
(c) 2 and 3 only<br />
(d) 1, 2 and 3<br />
<br />
17. The State Legislature consists of<br />
(a) The Legislative Assembly<br />
(b) The Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council<br />
(c) The Governor and one or two Houses of the Legislature, i.e., Legislative Assembly and Legislative Councils as the case may be<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
18. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to<br />
(a) Distribute revenue between the Centre and the States<br />
(b) Prepare the Annual Budget<br />
(c) Advise the Presidents on financial matters<br />
(d) Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and the State Governments<br />
<br />
19. Which of the following is correct about the Chief Election Commissioner?<br />
He holds the office till he attains the age of<br />
(a) 62 years<br />
(b) 65 years<br />
(c) 62 years of age or completes 3 years of service, whichever is earlier<br />
(d) 65 years of age or completes 5 years of service, whichever is earlier<br />
<br />
20. How many languages have been recognised by the Constitution of India?<br />
(a) Twenty-two<br />
(b) Seventeen<br />
(c) Sixteen<br />
(d) Fifteen<br />
<br />
<h2>
Frequently Asked Questions</h2>
<strong>What is WBPSC Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Exam Date?</strong><br />
<br />
As per latest notification WBPSC schedule the exam date on 30/08/2020 (1st Half)<br />
<br />
<strong>When Should I Get Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Admit Card?</strong><br />
<br />
You can download your admit card by online before the 7 days of examination date.<br />
<br />
<strong>What is Udyan Palan Projukti Sahayak Job Profile and Salary?</strong><br />
<br />
Details are mentioned in the advertisement. Better you go to the official advertisement and read <a href="https://wbpsc.gov.in/index.jsp" rel="noopener noreferrer" target="_blank">details</a>.</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-21457797056666522782020-08-06T00:25:00.001+05:302020-08-06T01:15:37.478+05:30JKPSC Medical Officer Previous Year Question Papers<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
<div style="text-align: justify;">
<strong>Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission</strong> is inviting application for the post of Medical Officer. Interested and eligible candidates may apply within <strong>04-September-2020</strong>. Before apply you must visit Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission <a href="http://jkpsc.nic.in/" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">Official Website</a> to know details advertisement. The JKPSC Medical Officer Question Papers from Previous Year is available here for download.</div>
<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;">
<img alt="JKPSC Medical Officer Previous Year Question Papers" border="0" data-original-height="478" data-original-width="400" height="320" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEh_BmZJ5G_8hbRV5AFtorXaBqpgFMMBMQoBg391yXgJW6EXebXcZlEiEUcZ-f6ZTCNssNbXUp7f0y9ctZh-3UxaQ582HBYlbXsWo97pZd57ZOStNEB4vDhi8qzNlnWZnHhl1sJdRoYVrEb1/s320/jkpsc-medical-officer-previous-year-question-papers.jpg" title="JKPSC Medical Officer Previous Year Question Papers" width="267" /></div>
<br />
<div style="text-align: justify;">
The Officials has recently published Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission Medical Officer Recruitment 2020 Notification to fill vacant 900 posts for Medical Officer.</div>
<br />
<div style="text-align: justify;">
A large number of applicants has applied for the Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission and now searching for Last Year Question Papers of Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission Medical Officer Exam Papers.</div>
<br />
<div style="text-align: justify;">
Hence, aspirants looking for the Medical Officer Model Question Papers can download the following links. These question papers have an important role in preparation for the Examination.</div>
<br />
<br />
<div style="text-align: justify;">
Hence, click on the following download links to Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission Previous Papers for Medical Officer Posts.</div>
<a name='more'></a><br />
<h2>
About JKPSC Medical Officer Recruitment</h2>
Here we discuss details about recruitment. Read original advertisement going to recruiter’s official website before apply.<br />
<h3>
Eligibility for Medical Officers</h3>
MBBS or Possession of recognized Graduate Medical qualification included in the First or Second Schedule or part-II of the 3rd Schedule (other than licentiate qualifications) to the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956. Holders of education qualification included in part-II of the 3rd Schedule should fulfill the conditions stipulated in sub-section (3) of section (13) of the Indian Medical Council Act 1956.<br />
Registration of Medical Council of Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir/Medical Council of India is pre-requisite for the eligibility of the candidate.<br />
<h3>
Centre of Examination:</h3>
<ol>
<li>The Examination will be held in Srinagar and Jammu centres. All the candidates shall indicate the option for examination centre as indicated above.</li>
<li>The allotment of centres shall be at the sole discretion of the Commission and once a centre is allotted to a candidate, request for change of centre will neither be entertained nor will the Commission respond to request for change of centre.</li>
</ol>
<h3>
Scheme of Selection:</h3>
<ol>
<li>In pursuance of SRO No: 388 dated: 10.09.2018 the selection process shall be by written test only which shall be of NEET (PG) standard as far as practicable.</li>
<li>The written test (MCQ type) shall be of 100 points.</li>
</ol>
<h3>
Medical officer Recruitment Calendar</h3>
<ul>
<li>Date of commencement for submission of online applications= 05.08.2020(10.00 A.M.)</li>
<li>Last date for submission of online applications and online fee= 04.09.2020 (23.59 P.M.)</li>
<li>The tentative date of examination (Written Test) is 01.11.2020.</li>
</ul>
<h2>
JKPSC Medical Officer Syllabus</h2>
However, before referring to the model paper, we advise checking the exam pattern and syllabus details. This helps in the clear understanding of Medical Officer Question paper pattern. Also, helps in analyzing Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission question and answers. Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission Medical Officer Exam question papers direct download links are given in this section.<br />
<table border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" style="width: 100%px;"><tbody>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="319">Anatomy</td> <td valign="top" width="319">Biochemistry</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="319">Microbiology</td> <td valign="top" width="319">Social And Preventive Medicine</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="319">Physiology</td> <td valign="top" width="319">Paediatrics</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="319">Pathology</td> <td valign="top" width="319">Surgery, ENT, Orthopedics & Anaesthesia</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="319">Pharmacology</td> <td valign="top" width="319">Psychiatry</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="319">Medicine Dermatology And Venereology</td> <td valign="top" width="319">Obstetrics and Gynaecology</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="319">Forensic Medicine</td> <td valign="top" width="319">Ophthalmology</td> </tr>
<tr> <td valign="top" width="319">Radiodiagnosis and Radiotherapy</td> <td valign="top" width="319"></td> </tr>
</tbody> </table>
<h2>
JKPSC Medical Officer Previous Year Question Papers</h2>
On this Page, we have updated JKPSC Medical Officer Model Papers and JKPSC Medical Officer Books for the sake of Aspirants. Here, we are providing the Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission Medical Officer Sample Papers and Medical Officer Exam Solved Question Papers for free. Download the Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission Old Question Papers and make as a reference for the exam preparation<br />
<br />
1. All are true about tracheostomy tube except -<br />
A. Consists of two metallic tubes<br />
B. Tubes are made up of silver alloy and titanium<br />
C. Metal tubes are ideally changed every 3 days<br />
D. Cuffed tubes are used for IPPV<br />
<br />
2. Nerve supply of the tympanic membrane is by all of following except -<br />
A. Auriculotemporal nerve<br />
B. Auricular branch of Vagus<br />
C. Occipital nerve<br />
D. Great auricular nerve<br />
<br />
3. Rigor mortis is first seen in-<br />
A. Heart<br />
B. Eyelid<br />
C. Face<br />
D. Head<br />
<br />
4. Spalding Sign is seen in-<br />
A. Maceration<br />
B. Adipocere<br />
C. Mummification<br />
D. Rigor mortis<br />
<br />
5. Regarding shotgun injuries, as distance increases, the pellets begin to diverge Between approx 1-3 meters pellets cause:-<br />
A. Multiple satellite puncture wounds surrounding a larger central hole.<br />
B. Pellets are still traveling as a compact mass<br />
C. Multiple small puncture wounds with no large central hole<br />
D. Multiple small puncture wounds with multiple central holes<br />
<br />
6. Which of the following statements about herpes zoster is true -<br />
A. It is not contagious<br />
B. Recurrences are common.<br />
C. incidences increases with age.<br />
D. It is defined by a vesicular eruption.<br />
<br />
7. Which one of the following IV Fluids is ‘the best for treating a severe case of cholera?<br />
A. 5% dextrose solution<br />
B. Diarrhoea treatment solution<br />
C. Normal saline<br />
D. Ringer lactate solution<br />
<br />
8. A 45- year - old man presents with sudden onset breathlessness and chest pain. Examination revealed tachypnoea, cyanosis, hypotension, raised JVP, widely split second heart sound and right ventricular gallop .What is the most likely diagnosis ?<br />
A. Acute myocardial infarction with cardiogenic shock<br />
B. Acute pericarditis<br />
C. Massive pulmonary embolism<br />
D. Pneumothorax<br />
<br />
9. Most common complication of Hiatal hernia is-<br />
A. Esophagitis<br />
B. Aspiration pneumonitis<br />
C. Volvulous<br />
D. Esophageal stricture<br />
<br />
10. Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy-<br />
A. Well defined leskan<br />
B. A mass of decreased density<br />
C. Areas of speculated microcalcilication<br />
D. Smooth borders<br />
<br />
11. In diagnosing Mullerian Anomalies, which of the following tools is most accuratee-<br />
A. HSG<br />
B. MRI<br />
C. Saline infusion sonography<br />
D. 2D Transvaginal ultrasound<br />
<br />
12. if twin A is in a transverse lie and twin B is vertex , the most appropriate route of delivery is-<br />
A. Cesarean section<br />
B. Internal podalic version followed by breech extraction<br />
C. Both<br />
D. Either<br />
<br />
13. Anosmia in a patient with poorly developed secondary sexual characteristics , should suggest a diagnosis of-<br />
A. isolated LH deficiency<br />
B. Hemochromaiosis<br />
C. Kallman' s Syndrome<br />
D. Laurence-Moon -Bardet- Biedel Syndrome<br />
<br />
14. Low dose containing OCPs have estrogen concentration in the range of -<br />
A. 5 -10 microgram<br />
B. 20- 30microgram<br />
C. 40-microgram<br />
D. 50-microgram<br />
<br />
15. All are Mesonephrlc (Woiffian) remnants except<br />
A. Gartnel’ s duct<br />
B. Ovarian ligament<br />
C. The epoophoron<br />
D. The paroophoron<br />
<br />
16. For Downs Syndrome 2nd trimester quadruple test Includes all except<br />
A. Alfa fetal protein<br />
B. HCG<br />
C. Inhibin-A<br />
D. PAPP<br />
<br />
17. Lower most portion of presenting fetal part at ischial spines means station<br />
A. -1<br />
B. 0<br />
C. +1<br />
D. None<br />
<br />
18. What is not developed from paramesonephric ducts?<br />
A. Uterus<br />
B. Upper vagina<br />
C. Hymen<br />
D. Cervix<br />
<br />
19. In which condition postpartum hemorrhage will not occur<br />
A. Preterm labour<br />
B. Cervical laceration<br />
C. Prolonged labour<br />
D. Over distension of uterus<br />
<br />
20. Elevation of unconlugated (indirect) bilirubin is most commonly seen in which one of the following-<br />
A. Biliary obstruction<br />
B. Crigler-Naijar syndrome<br />
C. Cholestasis<br />
D. Hepatitis<br />
<h2>
JKPSC Medical Officer Model Question</h2>
This Page is the best source to get <strong>JKPSC Medical Officer Old Question</strong> Papers. Here, you can find the free downloading links of the Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission Medical Officer Exam Question Papers. Since there are huge openings under the JKPSC Recruitment, the aspirants must prepare well to give better performance in the Written Exam. Therefore start your preparation for the JKPSC Medical Officer Exam as much as possible. Applicants can also get the Jammu and Kashmir Public Service Commission Medical Officer Exam Syllabus and Test Pattern along with Previous Question Papers.<br />
<br />
1. Which of the following is a cause of extravascular hemolysis?<br />
A. Falciparum malaria<br />
B. Sickle cell disease<br />
C. Mismatched blood transfusion<br />
D. Microthrombi in circulation<br />
<br />
2. A 10 year old boy developed pharyngitis due to B Hemolytic Streptococci. It subsided after a few days of penicillin therapy. Two weeks later his eyelids ecome puffy, he had lever, elevated blood pressure and gross hematuria. The likeliest diagnosis is -<br />
A. Acute proliferative glomerulonephritis<br />
B. Antiglomerular basement membrane disease<br />
C. Minimal change disease<br />
D. Rapidly progressive glomemlonephritis<br />
<br />
3. A 30- Year old man presents with mild gastroenteritis a few days after having sea food in a party. There is no blood or pus in the stool .Culture grown in Wagatsuma agar. Which causative agent is most likely to have caused this illness?<br />
A. Vibrio cholera<br />
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus<br />
C. Salmonella<br />
D. Shigella sonnei<br />
<br />
4. A patient who presents to the hospital with severe headaches develops convulsions and dies. At autopsy the brain grossly has a ‘Swiss cheese’ appearance due to the presence of numerous small cysts containing milky fluid. Microscopicaily, a scolex with hooklets is found within one of these cysts. What is the causative agent tor this disease?<br />
A. Taenia saginata<br />
B. Taenia solium<br />
C. Diphyllobothrium latum<br />
D. Echinococcus granulosa<br />
<br />
5. Iniraciavicular lesion of tuberculosis is known as -<br />
A. Gohn's focus<br />
B. Puhl's focus<br />
C. Assman's focus<br />
D. Simmon ‘s focus<br />
<br />
6. Parts of fallopian tube from ovary to uterus are-<br />
A. Infundibulum — Isthmus —Ampulla –intramural<br />
B. Ampuila -Isthmus-intramural – Iniundibulum<br />
C. Iniundibulum — Ampuila - lsihmus- Intramural<br />
D. Isthmus- Ampuila — Infundibulum -Intramural<br />
<br />
7. Which of the following is not a non-sedative anti-allergic drug?<br />
A. Cetrizine<br />
B. Asiemlzole<br />
C. Terienadine<br />
D. Triproiidine<br />
<br />
8. Ketogenesls in starvation is due to -<br />
A. Low level of oxaloacetate<br />
B. Decreased protein synthesis<br />
C. Low level of ATP<br />
D. Low level of NADH<br />
<br />
9. Circadin rhythm is controlled by?<br />
A. Suprachiasmatic nucleus<br />
B. Median eminence<br />
C. Pramedian nuclei<br />
D. Supraoptic nuclei<br />
<br />
10. Schizophrenia is characterized by all of the following symptoms that occur during a 1 month period except-<br />
A. Hallucinations<br />
B. Disorganized speech<br />
C. Delusions<br />
D. Disorientation<br />
<br />
11. The mainstay of treatment in acute bronchial asthma is<br />
A. Local acting steroids<br />
B. Local acting beta-2 agonists<br />
C. Theophylline<br />
D. Oral steroids<br />
<br />
12. Coronary angiography can visualize vessels with lumen up to<br />
A. 5mm<br />
B. 1mm<br />
C. 0.5mm<br />
D. 0.1mm<br />
<br />
13. Polycythemia is seen in-<br />
A. Bronchial asthma<br />
B. Corpulmonale<br />
C. Vitamin D excess<br />
D. CCF<br />
<br />
14. Presence of Visual Hallucination suggests-<br />
A. Schizophrenia<br />
B. Organic brain syndrome<br />
C. Psychotic Depression<br />
D. Hysteria<br />
<br />
15. An absolute contraindication to ECT is -<br />
A. Third trimester of pregnancy<br />
B. Lack of peripheral cholinesterase enzyme<br />
C. Recent coronary thrombosis<br />
D. Raised intracranial tension<br />
<br />
16. In Subdural hematoma the bleeding results from rupture of<br />
A. Middle Meningeal Artery<br />
B. Bridging Veins<br />
C. Venous Sinuses<br />
D. External Carotid Artery<br />
<br />
17. A young male presented with dyspnea, bleeding and petechial hemorrhage in the chest after 2 days, following fracture shaft of the femur right side Most likely cause is<br />
A. Air embolism<br />
B. Fat embolism<br />
C. Pulmonary thrombo-embolism<br />
D. Amniotic fluid embolism<br />
<br />
18. Formula for calculating IV fluids for Burn is-<br />
A. Total % body surface area x weight (Kg) x 4= volume (ml)<br />
B. Total % body surface area x weight (Kg) x 5= volume (ml)<br />
C. Total % body surface area x weight (Kg ) x 6= volume (ml)<br />
D. Total % body surface area x weight 9Kg0 x 7= volume (ml)<br />
<br />
19. Which of the following facilitates would healing -<br />
A. Ascorbic acid<br />
B. Zinc<br />
C. Vitamin A<br />
D. Selenium<br />
<h2>
Sample Question Papers for Medical Officers Jobs</h2>
We provided the Last years JKPSC Medical Officer Old Question Papers. Candidates who applied for these Jobs and started their Exam Preparation can download the provided JKPSC Medical Officer Previous Papers Pdf and Practice them. On this Page, we have provided the free downloading Links of JKPSC Medical Officer Previous Question Papers.<br />
<br />
1. In erect posture commonest site of foreign body in bronchus-<br />
A. Right posterior basal<br />
B. Right anterior basal<br />
C. Lateral basal<br />
D. Medial basal<br />
<br />
2. All of the following are characteristic features of Kwashiorkor except-<br />
A. High blood osmoiarity<br />
B. Hypoalbuminemia<br />
C. Edema<br />
D. Fatty liver<br />
<br />
3. Onest of action of ketamine is within-<br />
A. 30 seconds<br />
B. 30 to 60 seconds<br />
C. 2 mins<br />
D. 3 mins<br />
<br />
4. In acute Congestive glaucoma, pupil is -<br />
A. Oval and horizontal<br />
B. Oval and vertical<br />
C. Circular<br />
D. Slit like<br />
<br />
5. Which of the following is the commonest presenting complaint in chronic ostemyelltis.<br />
A. Severe pain<br />
B. High fever<br />
C. Joint stiffness<br />
D. Chronic discharging sinus<br />
<br />
6. Calculate the crude birth rate if TFR IS 2.3:<br />
A. 20.4<br />
B. 19.4<br />
C. 21.0<br />
D. Cannot be calculated<br />
<br />
7. What is the maximum permissible level of occupational exposure to ionizing radiation per year to the whole body of an individual, as set by the international commission of radiological protection?<br />
A. 2 rad<br />
B. 3rad<br />
C. 5 rad<br />
D. 8 rad<br />
<br />
8. Lichen planus is characterized by-<br />
A. Excoriations<br />
B. Impetiginization<br />
C. Hypopigmentation<br />
D. Frequent mucosal involvement<br />
<br />
9. A term infant is born to a known HIV positive mother. She has been taking antiretroviral medications prior to delivery. Routine management of the healthy infant should Include:<br />
A. Admission to neonatal ICU for close monitoring<br />
B. HIV ELISA on the infant to determine if congenital infection has occurred<br />
C. A course of Zidovudine for the infant<br />
D. Chest radiographs to evaluate congenital pneumocysticiscarinii<br />
<br />
10. Treatment of choice for otosclerosis in a young person is:<br />
A. Hearing aid<br />
B. Stapedectomy<br />
C. Stapes mobilization only<br />
D. Fenestration operation</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-52617403499322504502020-07-29T12:39:00.003+05:302020-07-29T12:39:47.745+05:30ICFRE MTS Previous Question Papers | LDC | Forest Guard<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
<b>Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education</b> is inviting application for the post of Lower Division Clerk, Forest Guard, Multi Tasking Staff, MTS. Interested and eligible candidates may apply within 25-September-2020. Before apply you must visit Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Official Website to know <a href="http://ifp.icfre.gov.in/wp-content/uploads/2020/07/Recruitment-Notification-dated-22.07.2020-IFP-Ranchi.pdf" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">details advertisement</a>.<br />
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Download Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Previous Papers for Lower Division Clerk, Forest Guard, Multi Tasking Staff, MTS Posts. Applicants applied for the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Lower Division Clerk, Forest Guard, Multi Tasking Staff, MTS can check the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Lower Division Clerk, Forest Guard, Multi Tasking Staff, MTS Previous Year Question Papers here.<br />
The old question papers are necessary to refer so that students can learn the important topics. Also, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Previous Year Question Papers will help you to understand the topic wise marking scheme.<br />
Hence, read the article and check the Papers with Solutions. To clear the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Lower Division Clerk, Forest Guard, Multi Tasking Staff, MTS Written Exam, candidates need to study well and prepare for the exam. Therefore, practice more Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Question Papers and crack the exam.<br />
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<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Download ICFRE MTS Model Papers</h2>
All the contenders who are seeking for the Government jobs have sent applications online. For qualifying the above job, every candidate must prepare well. So to make the candidate’s preparation easy, we update the ICFRE Written Test Papers here for free of cost.<br />
With the help of these old papers, the candidate will know the pattern of the exam, and also the difficulty of the exam. We have also provided the pdf of Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education MTS <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2020/03/hpscb-assistant-manager-previous-question.html" target="_blank">Syllabus</a> here.<br />
<br />
<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Past 5 Years Question Papers Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education</h2>
The ICFRE Forest Guard Previous Papers in Hindi will help the applied candidates for better preparation. Free downloading links of the ICFRE MTS Previous Papers and the ICFRE Previous Papers are enclosed below.<br />
Interested applicants can get these ICFRE Sample Papers for free of cost. Start your preparation for the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Exam by downloading the Last 5 Years Question Papers.<br />
<br />
<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Download Old Papers PDF ICFRE</h2>
Hence, we advise the applicants to refer all the ICFRE Forest Guard previous papers below. As the applicants need to prepare well to clear the written test.<br />
Hence, download and refer the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Lower Division Clerk Sample Papers given in the sections below. Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education given the official recruitment notification for Multi Tasking Staff posts.<br />
Candidates who are interested can check our notification page for more details. The latest and updated syllabus and Exam Pattern for Multi Tasking Staff are given. Hence, go through the article and find all related links at the end of the page. Keep visiting our page for more updates on Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Lower Division Clerk Recruitment.<br />
Download the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education MTS Previous Year Question Papers for free from this section. We have uploaded the required papers subject wise for aspirants use. Hence, click on the following links to download the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Multi Tasking Staff Previous Papers in the Pdf format. The papers given are only for reference purpose. Hope our material will help the candidates in preparation. Check the Syllabus and other details from the links given.<br />
<br />
<h2 style="text-align: left;">
ICFRE MTS Last Five Years Solved Papers Free PDF</h2>
Candidates who have applied for Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Recruitment can check the Multi Tasking Staff Previous Papers on our website. The candidates will be selected based on the Written Examination. ICFRE is going to conduct the written test to fill the Forest Guard vacancies.<br />
To get this Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Lower Division Clerk posts, you should prepare for the exam in a proper way. For this preparation, you needs this ICFRE Syllabus for Forest Guard Previous Papers. There may be a chance to ask the questions from ICFRE Previous Papers. So it is better for you to refer the MTS Sample Papers before the exam. The Candidate can also check the Latest Employment News on our page.<br />
<br />
<h2 style="text-align: left;">
ICFRE MTS Solved Papers Free PDF</h2>
So we decided to help the candidates with information related to Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education previous year questions. You all know that the written exam date of this test is near to you. Hence, it’s time to read the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education Lower Division Clerk Model Papers.<br />
Just spend your valuable time on reading the last year question papers. If you read this page, you can get the specified old papers for this exam in the Pdf format as well. Once, you got the ICFRE MTS Old Papers with Solutions Pdf, you can check the answers for the questions also. Definitely, it will make you prepare for the written test in an effective manner.<br />
At last, there may be a chance for placing you in Government Jobs. Most of the applicants still not getting the appropriate links to download the last year question paper format. To reduce their search burden, here we have given the direct links for downloading the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education MTS Exam Sample Papers on this page.</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-55570663544727463732020-05-09T14:17:00.004+05:302020-05-09T14:17:45.956+05:30Sample Nursing Question Paper Important Study Materials<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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Below is <b>Sample Nursing Question</b> Paper. The Aspirants who applied for the latest Nursing jobs for can check the Nursing Questions and Study Material in the sections below. Also, download the Free Nursing Question Papers, Model Papers Pdf from the direct links below.</div>
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<img alt="Sample Nursing Question" border="0" data-original-height="231" data-original-width="350" height="211" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjg22ciKCcRI_qxW3UUQUY4EATTb_1OLr8qAOezIavzE3wE5bMTugikxKvBfAB4U84dltsMHzF6Pnx9dbddZPzGovrPA8oIyXPeCEZFq8Hqx_zfWoAS4bfCyyXg6GIdqhNEcBB4QF0CZPRF/s320/sample-nursing-question.jpg" title="Sample Nursing Question" width="320" /></div>
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So, interested candidates check the Nursing Question as per syllabus & <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2020/05/model-nursing-questions.html">Exam</a> Pattern. Preparation for nursing jobs always visits our blog for Nursing Questions Study Material and Model Papers PDF. However, the list of sample Question papers given below is only for reference. Hope our Nursing Questions Model Papers helps you in your preparation and in scoring good marks.</div>
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<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Nursing Question Papers</h2>
1. School health services provides which of the following?<br />
(a) nutritional services<br />
(b) eye health<br />
(c) remedial measures & follow up<br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
2. A mental illness may be marked by all of the following EXCEPT<br />
(a) unpopular beliefs<br />
(b) impairment in pre-existing functioning<br />
(c) impoverishment of feelings<br />
(d) disturbance in behaviour<br />
<br />
3. While performing routine antenatal examination, the nurse is aware that edema in pregnancy may be due to<br />
(a) pre eclampsia<br />
(b) cardiac failure<br />
(c) physiological<br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
4. The first- line therapy for acute otitis media in children is<br />
(a) Cefuroxime<br />
(b) amoxicillin- clavulanic acid<br />
(c) amoxicillin <br />
(d) azithromycin<br />
<br />
5. Extremely depressed clients seem to do best in settings where they have<br />
(a) multiple stimulus<br />
(b) routine activities<br />
(c) minimal decision making <br />
(d) varied activities<br />
<br />
6. Transition from the 1st stage to 2nd stage of labour is evidenced by<br />
(a) increasing intensity of uterine contractions<br />
(b) appearance of bearing down effort<br />
(c) urge to defecate with descent of the presenting part<br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
7. Varicella zoster immune gamma globulin may be administered intramuscularly to infants for prevention of<br />
(a) chicken pox<br />
(b) measles<br />
(c) mumps <br />
(d) poliomyelitis<br />
<br />
8. The advantages of using chalkboard as an AV Aids are as mentioned below Except<br />
(a) it does not cause any noise<br />
(b) produces dust<br />
(c) can be used anywhere <br />
(d) mistakes can be corrected immediately<br />
<br />
9. According to the National Immunization Schedule, OPV booster dose is given at<br />
(a) 10- 14 weeks<br />
(b) 9 – 12 months<br />
(c) 16- 24 months<br />
(d) none of these<br />
<br />
10. Children born with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) may become symptomatic .......after birth<br />
(a) any time<br />
(b) 1- 2 weeks<br />
(c) 2- 4 weeks<br />
(d) 4- 6 weeks<br />
<br />
11. Pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH) refers to<br />
(a) pre eclampsia<br />
(b) gestational hypertension<br />
(c) eclampsia<br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
12. A behavioural therapy of sudden, direct and maximum exposure to the fear- producing stimulus is<br />
(a) Flooding<br />
(b) Desensitization<br />
(c) Biofeedback<br />
(d) response prevention<br />
<br />
13. The most peripheral contact point between the primary health care system and the community is<br />
(a) Community health centres (CHC) <br />
(b) Primary health centres (PHC)<br />
(c) Sub centre (SC)<br />
(d) None of these<br />
<br />
14. The process of assigning responsibility and authority to co- worker and ensuring his accountability is called<br />
(a) Staffing<br />
(b) Planning<br />
(c) Decentralization<br />
(d) delegation<br />
<br />
15. The most common cause of antepartum haemorrhage (APH) is<br />
(a) cervical polyp<br />
(b) unexplained cause<br />
(c) placental bleeding<br />
(d) local trauma<br />
<br />
16. Mania is characterized by<br />
(a) paranoid delusion<br />
(b) high self- esteem<br />
(c) loss of insight<br />
(d) loss of orientation<br />
<br />
17. Demography is the scientific study of human population which includes the study of changes in<br />
(a) population size<br />
(b) its composition<br />
(c) its distribution<br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
18. The psychological disorders and problems that may be seen in children includes the following EXCEPT<br />
(a) Tic<br />
(b) Delinquency<br />
(c) Enuresis<br />
(d) phimosis<br />
<br />
19. One of the disadvantages of over head projector as an AV Aids is<br />
(a) it provides one way communication<br />
(b) eye contact can be maintained<br />
(c) less pollutant<br />
(d) cheapest of all projected aids<br />
<br />
20. Pentavalent 1st dose is given at<br />
(a) Birth<br />
(b) 6 weeks<br />
(c) 10 weeks<br />
(d) 14 weeks</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-74079007338229562012020-05-08T00:59:00.003+05:302020-05-09T14:18:04.414+05:30Model Nursing Questions Paper Download Free Prepare<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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Here are certain direct links are given to download the <b>Nursing Questions</b> Model Papers to help the participants who are in preparation for their exams. Hence download the Nursing Questions Paper subject wise and practice by solving the questions. Use these question paper of Nursing as a reference for your preparation. </div>
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Don’t waste your time in searching for <b>Solved Question Papers</b> here & there. Because here we already did that thing for you and provided the Best Materials on Nursing. Just click on the relevant link to get the Nursing Questions Papers. Everything is possible with perfect preparation and practice. So, applicants can begin the preparation with Nursing Questions. We are here to help seriously intended candidates of Jobs. Therefore providing the <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2020/05/sample-nursing-question.html">Nursing Questions</a> Paper for free of cost.</div>
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<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Nursing Questions Practice Paper</h2>
1. The features of true labour pain includes -<br />
(a) show<br />
(b) formation of ‘bag of waters’<br />
(c) progressive effacement<br />
(d) all of these<br />
<br />
2. Performing an act that a reasonably prudent person under similar circumstances would not do is termed as<br />
(a) Negligence<br />
(b) Malpractice<br />
(c) fraud <br />
(d) defamation<br />
<br />
3. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is contraindicated in<br />
(a) increased ICP<br />
(b) extreme agitated client<br />
(c) severe catatonia & psychosis<br />
(d) severe depression with suicidal risk<br />
<br />
4. An infant usually doubles his birth weight by the age of<br />
(a) 3 months<br />
(b) 4 months<br />
(c) 5 months<br />
(d) 6 months<br />
<br />
5. The number of NEW cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of time is termed<br />
(a) Mortality<br />
(b) Incidence<br />
(c) prevalence <br />
(d) morbidity<br />
<br />
6. In a vertex presentation, where the occiput is placed posteriorly over the sacro- iliac joint or directly over the sacrum, it is called<br />
(a) breech presentation<br />
(b) occipito- posterior position<br />
(c) face presentation<br />
(d) none of these<br />
<br />
7. For the care and rehabilitation of mentally ill persons, Mental Health Act 1987 came into force in<br />
(a) 1991<br />
(b) 1992<br />
(c) 1993 <br />
(d) 1994<br />
<br />
8. One of the factors which inhibits lactation, among the following is<br />
(a) feeds with bottles<br />
(b) suckling<br />
(c) emptying the breasts<br />
(d) night feeds<br />
<br />
9. Each Community Health Centre covers a population of<br />
(a) 80,000 – 1.20 lakh<br />
(b) 70,000 - 1.10 lakh<br />
(c) 60,000- 1.00 lakh<br />
(d) 90,000 – 1.30 lakh<br />
<br />
10. Incubation period of Pneumonia in children is<br />
(a) 1- 2 days<br />
(b) 1- 3 days<br />
(c) 2- 4 days<br />
(d) 2- 6 days<br />
<br />
11. A nurse is caring for a female client who has suicidal tendencies. The nurse’s responsibility is to<br />
(a) observe her<br />
(b) give her privacy<br />
(c) allow her to go to toilet alone<br />
(d) allow her to get fresh air<br />
<br />
12. An example of physiological barrier of communication is<br />
(a) congestion<br />
(b) emotional disturbance<br />
(c) illiteracy<br />
(d) difficulties in hearing<br />
<br />
13. A child who is diagnosed with Nephrotic syndrome should receive ........diet<br />
(a) extra salt added<br />
(b) low protein<br />
(c) high protein<br />
(d) none of these<br />
<br />
14. The main events that occur in first stage of labour<br />
(a) dilatation & effacement of cervix<br />
(b) full formation of lower uterine segment<br />
(c) both (a) & (b)<br />
(d) none of these<br />
<br />
15. Lochia serosa lasts for about<br />
(a) 1- 4 days<br />
(b) 5- 9 days<br />
(c) 10- 15 days <br />
(d) 15 – 20 days<br />
<br />
16. Combined oral pills as a spacing method of contraception is given orally for 21 consecutive days beginning on the ........... day of the menstrual cycle<br />
(a) 4th<br />
(b) 5th<br />
(c) 6th<br />
(d) 7th<br />
<br />
17. Recurrent, episodic, paroxysmal, involuntary clinical events associated with abnormal electrical activity from the neurons is known as<br />
(a) convulsion<br />
(b) meningitis<br />
(c) encephalitis<br />
(d) epilepsy<br />
<br />
18. Treatment of ADHD involves the following drugs EXCEPT<br />
(a) amphetamine<br />
(b) antidepressants<br />
(c) barbiturates<br />
(d) lithium carbonate<br />
<br />
19. To uphold the dignity and honour of the nursing profession, Trained Nurses’ Association of India (TNAI) was formed in<br />
(a) 1908<br />
(b) 1918<br />
(c) 1949<br />
(d) 1946<br />
<br />
20. During foetal development, external genitalia develops in............post conception<br />
(a) 6- 8 weeks<br />
(b) 8- 12 weeks<br />
(c) 12 – 24 weeks<br />
(d) 24 – 28 weeks</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-85358522387739463142020-05-04T00:21:00.000+05:302020-05-04T00:46:02.435+05:30AIIMS Patna Staff Nurse Previous Year Question Papers<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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<b>AIIMS Patna Staff Nurse Previous Year Question</b> - <a href="https://aiimspatna.org/" rel="nofollow" target="_blank">All India Institutes of Medical Sciences</a> Previous Papers are available here to download for free. The candidates who are preparing for AIIMS Patna Staff Nurse Exam and in search for preparation tips & pattern to prepare for the written exam. Applicants can get All India Institutes of Medical Sciences Staff Nurse Previous Year Question Papers & AIIMS Patna Staff Nurse Exam Pattern, All India Institutes of Medical Sciences Staff Nurse Syllabus from our website.</div>
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You can also download the AIIMS Patna ANM Exam Sample Questions with answers for free. We have provided the All India Institutes of Medical Sciences ANM <a href="https://www.bankibps.com/2019/03/aiims-jodhpur-staff-nurse-previous-year-question.html" target="_blank">Solved Papers</a> to give proper guidance for the aspirants who are preparing for AIIMS Patna GNM written exam. These Papers are very helpful for the candidates during their preparation for the written exam. Candidates can download AIIMS Patna Staff Nurse old Papers pdf from the links provided below.</div>
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<h2 style="text-align: justify;">
Staff Nurse Competitive Exam Questions</h2>
1. An example of proton pump inhibitor:<br />
(A) Cotrimoxazole<br />
(B) Pandaprazole<br />
(C) Flucanazole<br />
(D) Mebandazole <br />
<br />
2. Therapeutic blood level of lithium is:<br />
(A) 30 to 150 mg/litre<br />
(B) 13 to 20 mg/liter<br />
(C) 0.8 to 1.2 meq/litre<br />
(D) 2 to 4 meq/liter<br />
<br />
3. An example of calcium channel blocker:<br />
(A) Atorvastatin<br />
(B) Atenolol<br />
(C) Clopidogrel<br />
(D) Amlodipine <br />
<br />
4. Thiamine deficiency can lead to:<br />
(A) Rickets<br />
(B) Night Blindness<br />
(C) Xerophthalmia<br />
(D) Beri-Beri<br />
<br />
5. Smallpox was officially declared eradicated from the entire world by world health organization in the year :<br />
(A) 1980<br />
(B) 1970<br />
(C) 1960<br />
(D) 1990<br />
<br />
6. Multi drug resistant Tuberculosis is one that is at least resistant to :<br />
(A) Thioacetazone and Ethambutol<br />
(B) Ciprofloxacin and Ofloxacin<br />
(C) Isoniazid and Rifamicin<br />
(D) Pyrazinamide and Streptomycin<br />
<br />
7. The following is NOT an extrapyramydal symptom:<br />
(A) Parkinsonism<br />
(B) Anhedonia<br />
(C) Dysionia<br />
(D) Akethisia<br />
<br />
8. A type of delusion in which patient reports of non-existence of self or world:<br />
(A) Delusion of jealousy<br />
(B) Delusion of grandiosity<br />
(C) Nihilistic delusion<br />
(D) Delusional perception<br />
<br />
9. One gram protein gives: <br />
(A) 4 calories<br />
(B) 9 calories<br />
(C) 6 calories<br />
(D) 10 calories<br />
<br />
10. After snake bite which of the following one is not a correct management?<br />
(A) Calm and reassure the victim<br />
(B) Immobilize the affected part<br />
(C) Wash the wound with normal saline<br />
(D) Make a wound on the bite site to drain the blood<br />
<br />
11. Difficulty in swallowing is termed as:<br />
(A) Anorexia<br />
(B) Dyspepsia<br />
(C) Dysphagia<br />
(D) Nausea<br />
<br />
12. Normal blood urea level:<br />
(A) 5 to 10 mg/dl<br />
(B) 50 to 60 mg/dl<br />
(C) 70 to 80 mg/dl<br />
(D) 20 to 40 mg/dl<br />
<br />
13. The body temperature of a patient admitted with typhoid fever is 38 degree Celsius, convert it into Fahrenheit:<br />
(A) 100.4<br />
(B) 101.4<br />
(C) 102.4<br />
(D) 103.4<br />
<br />
14. The first mammary secretion is called:<br />
(A) Prolactin<br />
(B) Colostrum<br />
(C) Lactogen<br />
(D) Relaxin</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com0tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-19421386095920741992020-05-03T00:44:00.000+05:302020-05-03T00:44:32.370+05:30Banking Industry Related GK Question Answer Papers<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
Here are certain direct links are given to download the <b>Banking Industry Related GK</b> Sample Papers to help the participants who are in preparation for their exams. Hence, download the Banking Industry Related GK Previous Year Question Paper and practice by solving the questions. Use these previous year question paper of Banking Industry Related GK as a reference for your preparation.<br />
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<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Banking Awareness Questions Answers</h2>
1. The Banking Ombudsman …………………<br />
(1) is in charge of bank loans for buses<br />
(2) fixes the rates of interest for loans<br />
(3) resolves complaints of customers<br />
(4) issues licenses for new bank branches<br />
(5) is the head of all nationalized banks<br />
<br />
2. Which of the following is not classified as commercial Bank?<br />
(1) Public sector bank<br />
(2) Foreign bank<br />
(3) Private bank<br />
(4) Regional rural bank<br />
(5) Urban cooperative bank<br />
<br />
3. Which of the following is not the name of a Banking Organisation?<br />
(1) HDFC<br />
(2) IDBI<br />
(3) YES<br />
(4) SEBI<br />
(5) ICICI<br />
<br />
4. Money laundering means ………………<br />
(1) Hiding of income source to avoid income tax<br />
(2) Money acquired through criminal source<br />
(3) Money acquired from undisclosed source and deposited in foreign banks<br />
(4) Process of conservation of money obtained illegally to appear to have originated from legitimate source<br />
(5) Money acquired from drug trafficking<br />
<br />
5. Monetary Policy as an arm of the economic policy is administrated by ………..<br />
(1) Government of India<br />
(2) Reserve Bank of India<br />
(3) State Bank of India<br />
(4) Governments of the respective states<br />
(5) None of these<br />
<br />
6. Which of the following is represents correct meaning of ‘REPO RATE’?<br />
(1) Rate of which sells Government Securities to Banks<br />
(2) Rate for borrowing rupees by banks from RBI<br />
(3) Rate offered by banks to their prime customers<br />
(4) Rate applicable for grant of priority sector loans<br />
(5) None of these<br />
<br />
7. Reserve which can act as a liquidity buffer for commercial banks during crisis times are ……<br />
(1) CAR<br />
(2) CRR<br />
(3) CAR and CRR<br />
(4) CRR and SLR<br />
(5) SLR<br />
<br />
8. Savings bank accounts are opened by …………..<br />
(1) Trading entities, manufacturing entities and individuals for savings purpose<br />
(2) Traders and manufacturers for business purpose<br />
(3) Individuals for savings purpose<br />
(4) Limited companies and partnerships for savings purpose<br />
(5) Cooperative banks for savings<br />
<br />
9. Union budget is always presented in the month of ………….<br />
(1) January<br />
(2) March<br />
(3) April<br />
(4) December<br />
(5) February<br />
<br />
10. A customer drawing a chque on a bank has a right to ………….<br />
(1) Take back the cheque from the bank after it is paid<br />
(2) Take back the cheque from the bank after it is paid with the permission of RBI<br />
(3) Stop payment of the cheque before it is paid<br />
(4) Stop payment of the cheque after it is paid<br />
(5) Stop payment of the cheque before it is issued<br />
<br />
Q1. 3 Q2. 5 Q3. 4 Q4. 4 Q5. 2 Q6. 2 Q7. 3 Q8. 3 Q9. 5 Q10. 3</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-14262066822764408252020-05-02T23:03:00.000+05:302020-05-02T23:03:03.231+05:30NABARD Banking Awareness Question Papers Download<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Banking Awareness Question Paper</h2>
1. When did Regional Rural Banks start functioning in India?<br />
(A) 1975<br />
(B) 1947<br />
(C) 1956<br />
(D) 1960<br />
<br />
2. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Central Pay Commission?<br />
(A) Justice B. N. Srikrishna<br />
(B) Prof. Ravindra Dholakia<br />
(C) J. S. Mathur<br />
(D) Sushma Nath<br />
<br />
3. The 11th Five Year Plan is termed as plan for.<br />
(A) India’s Health<br />
(B) Eradication of poverty from India<br />
(C) India’s Education<br />
(D) Development of Rural India<br />
<br />
4. Which of the following correctly describes what sub-prime lending is?<br />
(1) Lending to the people with less than ideal credit status.<br />
(2) Lending to the people who are high value customers of the banks.<br />
(3) Lending to those who are not a regular customer<br />
(A) Only 1<br />
(B) Only 2<br />
(C) Only 3<br />
(D) All<br />
<br />
5. The actual return of an investor is reduced sometimes as the prices of the commodities go up all of a sudden. In financial sector this type of phenomenon is known as:<br />
(A) Probability risk<br />
(B) Market risk<br />
(C) Inflation risk<br />
(D) Credit risk<br />
<br />
6. Which of the following is the limitation of the ATMs owing to which people are required to visit branches of the bank?<br />
(1) It does not accept deposits.<br />
(2) It has a limited cash disbursement capacity.<br />
(3) Lack of human interface.<br />
(A) Only (1)<br />
(B) Only (2)<br />
(C) Only (3)<br />
(D) All<br />
<br />
7. The World Development Report 2009 is released by which of the following Organisations?<br />
(A) UNESCO<br />
(B) ADB<br />
(C) IMF<br />
(D) World Bank<br />
<br />
8. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Lehman Brothers Holdings Inc. which was in news sometimes back?<br />
(1) The US government provided a US$ 7000 million bailout package to the company.<br />
(2) The company filed for bankruptcy in a court in New York.<br />
(3) The company is now out of financial crisis and is busy in its restructuring so that it can start afresh.<br />
(A) Only (1)<br />
(B) Only (2)<br />
(C) Only (3)<br />
(D) All<br />
<br />
9. The Reserve Bank of India has recently issued guidelines to banks on Pillar 2 of Basel II<br />
framework. Pillar 2 deals with which of the following?<br />
(1) Better human resource management<br />
(2) Adequate capital to support risks<br />
(3) Better profitability with minimum number of employees<br />
(A) Only (1)<br />
(B) Only (2)<br />
(C) Only (3)<br />
(D) None of these<br />
<br />
10.The World Investment Report 2008 was released in September 20This report is published every year by:<br />
(A) Government of India<br />
(B) World Trade Organisation (WTO)<br />
(C) Asian Development Bank (ADB)<br />
(D) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)<br />
<br />
11. As we all know some new initiatives were introduced in the area of Fiscal Management by the government of India. Which of the following acts was passed a few years back to keep a check on the fiscal indiscipline on macroeconomic parameters?<br />
(A) FERA<br />
(B) FRBMA<br />
(C) FEMA<br />
(D) Public Debt Act<br />
<br />
12. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing paper notes in India?<br />
(A) Union Government<br />
(B) Reserve Bank of India<br />
(C) Ministry of Finance<br />
(D) Supreme Court<br />
<br />
13. Decision taken at Bretton Woods Conference led to the formation of<br />
(A) IDA<br />
(B) IMF<br />
(C) ADB<br />
(D) IFC<br />
<br />
14. Which of the following is known as plastic money?<br />
(A) bearer cheques<br />
(B) credit cards<br />
(C) demand drafts<br />
(D) gift cheques<br />
<br />
15. Euro is the currency of European Union. When did it come into being?<br />
(A) 1999<br />
(B) 1995<br />
(C) 2000<br />
(D) 2001<br />
<br />
16. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?<br />
(A) Reserve Bank of India<br />
(B) State Bank of India<br />
(C) ICICI Bank<br />
(D) Bank of India<br />
<br />
17. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form<br />
(A) Reserve Bank of India<br />
(B) Imperial Bank of India<br />
(C) Bank of India<br />
(D) Union Bank of India<br />
<br />
18.In India, income tax is levied by<br />
(A) Union Government<br />
(B) State Governments<br />
(C) Ministry of Finance<br />
(D) RBI<br />
<br />
19. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in?<br />
(A) 1947<br />
(B) 1948<br />
(C) 1950<br />
(D) 1956<br />
<br />
20. What is a Bank which has capital and reserves of over Rs. 5 lakhs called?<br />
(A) National Bank<br />
(B) Cooperative Bank<br />
(C) Scheduled Bank<br />
(D) Unscheduled Bank</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7967929950238484869.post-73575604900611781122020-05-02T22:54:00.000+05:302020-05-02T22:54:56.422+05:30Bank of India Banking Awareness Question Papers<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">
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<h2 style="text-align: left;">
Banking Related GK</h2>
1. Central Banking Investigation committee recommended in 1930 to establish .........?<br />
1) SBI<br />
2) SEBI<br />
3) RBI<br />
4) ONGC<br />
5) Allahabad Bank<br />
<br />
2. Reserve Bank of India was started with a share capital of Rs .........crores on 1 April 1935?<br />
1) 100<br />
2) 200<br />
3) 5<br />
4) 15<br />
5) 250<br />
<br />
3. All India Credit Survey Committee(1952) suggested to set up .........?<br />
1) SBI<br />
2) RBI<br />
3) NABARD<br />
4) SBH<br />
5) IRDA<br />
<br />
4. The first credit card was issued in India by VISA in .........?<br />
1)1994<br />
2)1991<br />
3)2001<br />
4)1986<br />
5)1981<br />
<br />
5. First international credit card issued by..........through VISA, getting special permission from RBI in 1987?<br />
1) Andhra Bank<br />
2) Corporation bank<br />
3) ICICI<br />
4) HDFC<br />
5) None<br />
<br />
6. The Central Government decided to give the loans to SHG(Self Help Groups) at .........% on par with Agriculture. ( International summit on Micro finance and Inclusive Development held on June 21, 2011 at Hyderabad)?<br />
1) 6<br />
2) 10<br />
3) 15<br />
4) 11<br />
5) 7<br />
<br />
7. The Local area banks were permitted to establish in .........?<br />
1) 1986<br />
2) 2001<br />
3) 2006<br />
4) 1991<br />
5) 1996<br />
<br />
8. Expand ECGC Ltd .........?<br />
1) Export Cash Guarantee Corporation of India Life<br />
2) Export Credit Guild Corporation of India Loop<br />
3) Export Credit Guarantee Company of India Liability<br />
4) Expand Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Limited<br />
5) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Limited<br />
<br />
9. RBI conducts sales of dated securities and treasury bills through its .........?<br />
1) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)<br />
2) Negotiable Instruments<br />
3) Open Market Operations<br />
4) Bank Rate<br />
5) None<br />
<br />
10. ......... got $95.16 million loan agreement with the Asian Development Bank to strengthen tourism sector?<br />
1) Goa<br />
2) Himachal Pradesh<br />
3) Andhra Pradesh<br />
4) Bihar<br />
5) Kerala<br />
<br />
11. Central Bank of USA is .........?<br />
1) Bank of America<br />
2) Citi Bank<br />
3) Federal Reserve<br />
4) Reserve Bank of USA<br />
5) Obama bank<br />
<br />
12. Government securities Act passed in .........to stream line the government securities?<br />
1) 2011<br />
2) 2006<br />
3) 2007<br />
4) 2009<br />
5) 2008<br />
<br />
13. Hurricane Irene disturbed .........?<br />
1) India<br />
2) Pakistan<br />
3) USA<br />
4) Australia<br />
5) Japan<br />
<br />
14. Transition economies mean .........?<br />
1) economies left modern economies and go to central or conventional set up<br />
2) countries transforming from dictator ship to autocrat rule<br />
3) economies that cancelled licensing system and hand over system to central bank<br />
4) countries left European Union to join USA Exchange system<br />
5) abandoned central or conventional set up and changing to modern market economies<br />
<br />
15. Trotting Inflation means .........?<br />
1) When prices down moderately and the annual inflation rate is a single digit<br />
2) when prices rise in fast mode and the annual inflation rate is a double digit<br />
3) when prices rise slowly and the annual inflation rate is a single digit<br />
4) when prices rise moderately and the annual inflation rate is Zero<br />
5) When prices rise moderately and the annual inflation rate is a single digit<br />
<br />
16. On 6 September 2011, UNCTAD's Trade and Development Report 2011, projected an economic growth of 8.1 per cent for India. Expand UNCTAD?<br />
1) United Nations Conference on Tier and Development<br />
2) Unit Nations Conference on Trade and Development<br />
3) United Nations Conference on Trade and Deal<br />
4) Unique Nations Conference on Trade and Development<br />
5) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development<br />
<br />
17. ..........is the third largest trading partner for India?<br />
1) European Union<br />
2) Japan<br />
3) Russia<br />
4) USA<br />
5) Australia<br />
<br />
18. ..........has sanctioned Rs. 1.5 crore to set up a kumki elephant (tamed/ trained) camp at Chadivayal at the foothills of Siruvani.?<br />
1) Kerala<br />
2) Karnataka<br />
3) Tamil Nadu<br />
4) Goa<br />
5) Odisha<br />
<br />
19. ..........launched the First Gold Index in India with a Base Date of 2 January 2007?<br />
1) BSE<br />
2) CRISIL<br />
3) NSE<br />
4) SEBI<br />
5) RBI<br />
<br />
20. On 8 July 2011, the Central Government issued the new series of coins with improved design and revised size. The coins are .....?<br />
1) 25 Paise, one rupee, two rupee, five rupee and ten rupee<br />
2) one rupee, two rupee, five rupee and ten rupee<br />
3) one rupee, two rupee, five rupee and hundred rupee<br />
4) 50 Paise , one rupee, two rupee, five rupee and thousand rupee<br />
5) 50 Paise, one rupee, two rupee, five rupee and ten rupee<br />
<br />
21. ...........bank was penalized for Rs.25 lakh for violating norms relating to Know Your Customer (KYC)<br />
1) UCO<br />
2) Citi<br />
3) SBI<br />
4) Syndicate<br />
5) Andhra<br />
<br />
22. RBI allowed domestic companies to issue shares against the import of .......... goods, allowing them to expand the business.<br />
1) Luxury<br />
2) Cheap<br />
3) Capital<br />
4) White<br />
5) Smuggled<br />
<br />
23. The account in which trading of shares in their electronic form is ............?<br />
1) NRI account<br />
2) Foreign account<br />
3) Trio account<br />
4) Current account<br />
5) DEMAT account<br />
<br />
24. The Modern Banking System includes ............?<br />
1) Customer Banking<br />
2) Infusion of IT<br />
3) Risk Based Management<br />
4) Add on Services<br />
5) All of above<br />
<br />
25. ............is a term not used in Banking?<br />
1) Advance<br />
2) Garnishee<br />
3) Lien<br />
4) Emission<br />
5) Crossing<br />
<br />
26. Which among the following is not a part of Institutional Banking?<br />
1) Commercial banks<br />
2) Private Banks 3) Money Lenders<br />
4) Co-operative Banks<br />
5) Regional Rural Banks<br />
<br />
27. Central bank is going to insist on a minimum asset size of more than Rs............crore for registering any new non-banking finance company (NBFC)?<br />
1) 100<br />
2) 500<br />
3) 50<br />
4) 150<br />
5) 60<br />
<br />
28. On 13th August, ............ crores was abolished by the Union Government for hand weavers?<br />
1)1500<br />
2) 2000<br />
3) 3000<br />
4) 10000<br />
5) 7500<br />
<br />
29. The World Bank says that the world may see another recession worst than 2008 due to ............region crises?<br />
1) USA<br />
2) UK<br />
3) France<br />
4) Germany<br />
5) Euro Zone<br />
<br />
30. Expand EASIEST?<br />
1) Electronic Account System in Excise and Service Tariff<br />
2) Electric Accounting System in Excise and Service Tax<br />
3) Electronic Accounting System in Exemption and Service Tax<br />
4) Empowered Accounting System in Excise and Service Tax<br />
5) Electronic Accounting System in Excise and Service Tax<br />
<br />
31. On 29 August 2011, RBI issued Draft guidelines regarding the Licensing of New Banks in the Private Sector. Find out one not among them?<br />
1) Entities having the share of 10 percent or more source of income from the construction sector/real estate not eligible to open new private banks<br />
2) New banks will be set up through a wholly owned Non-Operative Holding Company (NOHC)<br />
3) Minimum capital requirement will be 500 crore<br />
4) At least 50 per cent of the directors of the NOHC should be independent directors<br />
5) The aggregate non-resident share holding in the new bank shall not exceed 74 percent for the first 5 years</div>
Deb Sayshttp://www.blogger.com/profile/03344537861743623401noreply@blogger.com